MCT2 Grade 8, Test 2, 1a, P

MCT2 Grade 8, Test 2, 1a, P
Copyright © (Book Form Compilation) Carla Kirkland dba The Kirkland Group
Question Number 13
Explanation:
Changing the amount of oil for each colony of bacteria would decrease
the validity of the experiment because the amount of oil would not be
controlled.
Answer: D
MCT2 Grade 8, Test 1, 1b, P
Question Number 53
Explanation:
The graph is depicting numbers, which is quantitative data. (Word-
filled descriptions are qualitative data). The line is decreasing as the
years progress, indicating that the number of tetanus cases are
declining.
Answer: D
Question Number 8
Explanation:
Quantitative data is numerical data. Qualitative data is informative
data in the form of written observations. An inference is a conclusion
reached on the basis of evidence or reasoning. Based on the
quantitative and qualitative data in the table, the most logical
inference is that the cloudier the water, the more soil erosion and the
less able the plant would prevent soil erosion.
Answer: G
Incorrect Answer Explanations:

F: The clearer the water, the better plants were able to prevent soil
erosion.
H: The clearer the water, the less soil eroded.
J: The cloudier the water, the less plants were able to prevent soil
erosion.
Question Number 43
Explanation:
Qualitative observations are informative and in written form.
Inferences are conclusions reached on the basis of evidence or
reasoning. From the information provided, a logical inference based
on qualitative observations is that mosquitoes that carry malaria live
near the equator.
Answer: A

B: The qualitative information given does not support this answer.
C: The qualitative information given does not support this answer.
D: The qualitative information given does not support this answer.
MCT2 Grade 8, Test 3, 1b, B
MCT2 Grade 8, Test 1
MCT2 Grade 8, Test 1, 1c, P
Question Number 43
Explanation:
A cause and effect relationship is the relationship between actions or
events such that one is a result of the other. Based on the data
table, as the air pressure increases daily, the wind speed decreases.
Answer: A
MCT2 Grade 8, Test 3, 1c, A
MCT2 Grade 8, Test 1, 1d, P
Question Number 12
Explanation:
Based on the information provided in the question, individuals that
have only one mutated sickle cell gene are not affected by sickle cell
anemia and do have protection against malaria.
Answer: J

F: Mosquitoes carrying malaria do not injure sickle shaped red blood
cells, they injure skin cells.
G: Based on the information provided, people with two mutated
sickle cell genes do not have immunity against malaria. The just
have high rates of surviving malaria.
H: Mutated sickle cells do not destroy malaria virus.
MCT2 Grade 8, Test 2, 1d, B
Question Number 6
Explanation:
An observation would support Jared’s conclusion.
Answer: F

G: An estimation would not support Jared’s conclusion.
H: A calculation would not support Jared’s conclusion.
J: A measurement would not support Jared’s conclusion.
MCT2 Grade 8, Test 1, 1e, P
Question Number 44
Explanation:
Use the data table to verify Dee’s results. As the air pressure
increases, the wind speed decreases.
Answer: G
MCT2 Grade 8, Test 2, 1e, A
Question Number 32
Explanation:
Max’s conclusion can best be defended by the diagram showing that
the bottom of the tank sloped upward at one end just like the bottom
of the ocean near the shore.
Answer: J
MCT2 Grade 8, Test 1, 1f, P
Question Number 8
Explanation:
The proposed solution is not well designed because the Earth’s
movements are unpredictable and can’t be relied upon to warn
people of potential earthquake danger.
Answer: H

F: Nature cannot be controlled.
G: The proposed solution does not prevent injury and damage, it is a
method of warning.
J: Scientists cannot prevent earthquakes from occurring.
Question Number 10
Explanation:
The idea is not possible because one type of soil is not suitable for
optimal growth in all plant types.
Answer: J

F: This idea is not possible.
G: There is a way to tell which nutrients are needed by individual
types of plants.
H: This idea is not possible.
MCT2 Grade 8, Test 1, 1g, P
Question Number 10
Explanation:
The conclusion that a mutated sickle cell gene was harmful and
presented no benefits needs to be revised simply because the
information provided indicates otherwise. Those individuals with only
one mutated sickle cell gene are not affected by sickle cell anemia,
but do have protection against malaria.
Answer: G
Question Number 31
Explanation:
Based on the information provided, Henri Becquerel disproved
previous conclusions about light not being able to pass through black
paper. Because of Henri Becquerel’s experiment and conclusion,
scientists had to revise their conclusions.
Answer: C

A: Uranium was used in the experiment, indicating it was safe for
experimental use.
B: Based on the information provided, there is no indication that
scientists repeated Becquerel’s experiment.
D: Becquerel’s experiment was accepted.
MCT2 Grade 8, Test 1, 1h, A
Question Number 9
Explanation:
Not all scientific conclusions are valid. Skepticism raises questions
that often times lead to retesting and revised conclusions.
Answer: D
MCT2 Grade 8, Test 2, 1h, P
Question Number 14
Explanation:
The team of scientists should address the skepticism by running the
experiment several times and not using oil that can break down
naturally.
Answer: G

F: Changing the amount of oil for each trial would not relieve the
skepticism.
H: Running the experiment until the results match the skepticism is
not the most effective or efficient way to address the concern.
J: The experiment should be run several additional times and the
type of oil should be taken into consideration.
Question Number 55
Explanation:
Dr. Jordan should respond to the alternative conclusion by re-
analyzing his results and taking his coworker’s suggestion into
consideration.
Answer: C

A: Dr. Jordan should not revise his conclusion without further
research.
B: Dr. Jordan should retest with his coworker’s suggestion in
consideration.
D: Dr. Jordan should not dismiss his coworker’s suggestion without
further research.
MCT2 Grade 8, Test 1, 2a, A
Question Number 22
Explanation:
Mass is conserved when no new mass is created. Sometimes, mass
is “lost” by substances becoming gases and escaping into the air.
Other times mass is “gained” when substances react with the air. In
a perfectly controlled environment where no matter is allowed to
escape or enter into the reaction, the mass of the reactants should
be exactly that of the products. In option G, the reactants equal the
products, no new mass was created, and Oxygen gas was “lost”. In
option H, the reactants equal the products, but CO2 (carbon dioxide)
was formed, new mass was created.
Answer: G
MCT2 Grade 8, Test 1, 2a, B
Question Number 57
Explanation:
Products are located on the right side of the arrow in a chemical
equation. The chemical formula C6H12O6 represents glucose and 6O2
represents oxygen gas.
Answer: B
Question Number 24
Explanation:
In order for this chemical equation to be properly balanced, 3
molecules of O2 are needed. There are 8 molecules of O2 on the
product (right) side of the equation. The equation shows that there
are 2 molecules of O2 on the reactant (left) side of the equation. Six
(6) more are needed. 3x2=6.
Answer: G
Question Number 31
Explanation:
The Law of Conservation of Mass states that mass is neither created
nor destroyed. The mass of substances produced (products) by a
chemical reaction is always equal to the mass of the reacting
substances (substances). If 1,000 molecules of aluminum oxide are
used in the reaction (2Al2O3), 2,000 Aluminum atoms will be
produced.
Answer: C
Question Number 41
Explanation:
This chemical reaction is a type of decomposition reaction. A
complex molecule (methane) is being broken down to make simpler
ones. Methane is CH4.
Answer: A
Question Number 13
Explanation:
The weaker the bond between Hydrogen and another element, the
stronger the acid will be. Using that information and the weakest
acid that would be formed between Hydrogen and Fluorine.
Answer: A
Question Number 23
Explanation:
Bonds formed between a metal, (Mg), and a nonmetal, (F), are ionic
bonds.
Answer: A

B: Mg is not a nonmetal.
C: A covalent bond would not form.
D: A covalent bond would not form.
Question Number 37
Explanation:
Christy can eliminate that Sodium (Na) is a transition metal from the
list. Transition metals are groups 3 – 12. Sodium is in group 1.
Answer: B

A: Sodium does have the symbol Na.
C: The atomic number of Sodium is 11.
D: Sodium does have 1 valence electron. It is in group 1.
Question Number 23
Explanation:
As the cart moves along, at each timed interval, the distance is
decreased by half. Between start and two minutes, moved 40
meters. Between 2 and 4 minutes, it moved 20 meters. Between 4
and 6 minutes, it moved 10 meters. Continuing in this pattern,
between 6 and 8 minutes, it will move 5 meters.
Answer: B
Question Number 36
Explanation:
Because the objects have the same mass, they will travel in their
given directions and once they collide, they will repel each other and
travel in different directions.
Answer: F
Question Number 30
Explanation:
The graph that best depicts the velocity of a car that is accelerating
at a constant rate is graph F. The data line shows a constant
increase upward.
Answer: F

G: Graph G shows an increase of acceleration but it is not constant.
H: Graph H does not show an increase of acceleration.
J. Graph J shows a constant increase of acceleration then
deceleration.
Question Number 36
Explanation:
The motion of the object in the graph can be described as it slowing
down eventually to a stopping point.
Answer: H

F: The graph does not indicate that the velocity will increase. The
line slopes downward.
G: The graph does not indicate that the acceleration will increase.
The line slopes downward.
J: The graph does not indicate that it will continue to move at a
constant rate in a straight line. The line slopes downward.
Question Number 30
Explanation:
Alternating Current (AC) current is a specific type of electric current in
which the direction of the current’s flow is reversed, or alternated, on
a regular basis. Direct current (DC) is the same except for the fact
that it flows in the same direction at all times. AC was chosen in the
early 20th century as the North American standard because it
presented fewer risks and promised higher reliability than DC
systems.
Answer: G
Question Number 41
Explanation:
Electricity is generated by a substation (power plant), then sent
through a transformer that transfers electrical energy between the
substation and our homes. Electrical junction boxes receive the
electricity enabling our homes to use outlets. Lastly, the electric
circuit of the lamp plugged into to outlet completes the circuit.
Answer: A
MCT2 Grade 8, Test 2, 2d, A
Question Number 27
Explanation:
The effect of the wind turbine is that the unused electric power can
be added to the grid, which will increase the power available to all
customers.
Answer: C
Question Number 25
Explanation:
Infrared light is a part of the Electromagnetic Spectrum, which
includes all types of light from X-rays to radio waves, and even
microwaves. Infrared light has long wavelength radiation, is of lower
energy and is usually less harmful. Humans are unable to see
infrared light. Infrared light is the sun’s warmth, and basking reptiles
absorb infrared radiation extremely effectively through their skin.
Answer: B
MCT2 Grade 8, Test 1, 2e, B
Question Number 32
Explanation:
Using the diagram provided, wavelengths range from longest to
shortest going from left to right. Frequency ranges from lowest to
highest going from left to right. The question concerns wavelength.
Yellow light is considered visible light. The only type of
electromagnetic wave that has a longer wavelength is infrared
radiation.
Answer: F
Question Number 38
Explanation:
The type of radiation that can cause damage to cells of living things
and be blocked by the Earth’s ozone layer is Ultraviolet (UV) rays.
Answer: H
Question Number 57
Explanation:
The type of electromagnetic radiation capable of treating wastewater
is Ultraviolet (UV) radiation.
Answer: A
MCT2 Grade 8, Test 1, 2f, B
Question Number 21
Explanation:
Newton’s Second Law of Motion states that the net force of an object
(F) is equal to the mass of an object (m) multiplied by its acceleration
(a).
Answer: A
Question Number 45
Explanation:
Newton’s first law “An object at rest tends to stay at rest and an
object in motion tends to stay in motion with the same speed and in
the same direction unless acted upon by an unbalanced force.
If an object is moving at constant velocity, that is an indication that
there is no force acting upon it. It will continue along it’s path until
force is applied.
Answer: C
Question Number 56
Explanation:
Newton’s 2nd Law of Motion: F= m*a
Answer: J
40. Which situation is explained by Newton’s first law
of motion?
F. A basketball bounces upward when it is dropped on

the floor.
G. You can lift more mass with the same force using a
longer lever.
H. Even though you stop pedaling your bicycle, you
keep moving forward.
J. More fuel is required to accelerate a large truck than
is required to accelerate a small car.
Question Number 40
Explanation:
Newton’s 1st law of motion is that an object remains in motion or at
rest until a force acts upon it.
Answer: H

F: This is an example of Newton’s 3rd Law
G: This is an example of Newton’s 2nd Law
J: This is an example of Newton’s 2nd Law
Question Number 54
Explanation:
Newton’s first law of motion is that a moving object will continue
moving until a force acts upon it.
Answer: G
Question Number 19
Explanation:
A marshy wetland is characterized by having salt water, a variety of
grasses and reeds without bushes and large trees, and heavily
saturated mud and clay at its base. An adaptation is a characteristic
that enables an organism to survive. Best adapted mammals would
have broad tails and waterproof coats. Best adapted plants would
have broad floating leaves and roots that reduce salt absorption.
Answer: A
Question Number 37
Explanation:
The information provided does not indicate that needles grow faster
than leaves.
Answer: C
Question Number 46
Explanation:
Plants must undergo photosynthesis in order to obtain energy and
survive. The necessities for photosynthesis are sunlight, water, and
carbon dioxide. In the desert, plants have a more difficult time
undergoing photosynthesis due to lack of water, so the adaptation of
converting carbon dioxide into CAM would be best adapted to desert
plants.
Answer: G
Question Number 15
Explanation:
The organisms that would benefit directly from the increase of
flowering plants are those that consume nectar and pollen.
Answer: C
Question Number 21
Explanation:
The adaptations that have allowed osprey to survive in their
environment are thick oily feathers for water resistance, webbed feet
for quick movement in water, and a pivotal head that allows for quick
view in all directions.
Answer: C
Question Number 26
Explanation:
Due to the environmental change, the number of insects will
decrease because predators will be better able to see the light
colored insects on the dark bark.
Answer: G

F: The number of insects will not increase.
H: The number of insects will not increase.
J: The number of insects will not increase.
Question Number 44
Explanation:
The sickle- cell gene continues to exist in people living near the
equator because people who carry the mutated gene are more likely
to survive malaria and pass the mutation on to their offspring.
Answer: F
Question Number 1
Explanation:
Both the cell wall and cell membrane function in surrounding the cell
and providing protection.
Answer: D

A: A chloroplast does not store energy; it is the site where energy is
created.
B: A chloroplast does not make energy from sugar; that occurs only
in the mitochondrion.
C: The cytoskeleton does not provide rigidity and support for the cell;
it helps organelles to move around the cell.
Question Number 39
Explanation:
Epithelial tissue is skin, which the outer covering of the human body.
Answer: A
Question Number 48
Explanation:
The function of the nucleus is to control all activities of the cell. The
function of the cell membrane is to control what enters and leaves
the cell.
Answer: G

F: The nucleus does not convert food energy. The cell membrane
does not store minerals and wastes.
H: The nucleus does not provide support. The cell membrane does
not convert carbon dioxide and water into food.
J: The nucleus does not store food and water. The cell membrane
does not store chemicals used for photosynthesis.
Question Number 1
Explanation:
The cell that Chris viewed through the microscope lens is a nerve
cell.
Answer: A
Question Number 25
Explanation:
The shape of nerve red blood cells suit their function because nerve
cells are long and branched for transmitting information. Red blood
cells are small and round, which are fitting for traveling through
capillaries to deliver oxygen.
Answer: A
Question Number 39
Explanation:
The structure labeled X in the diagram is the Golgi apparatus.
Answer: D
Question Number 24
Explanation:
The function of the intestine is to absorb nutrients from food. If
schistosomiasis are located inside the intestine, the intestine will not
be able to perform its normal function of absorbing nutrients from
food.
Answer: J
Question Number 33
Explanation:
The cold is a type of virus.
Answer: B

A: The cold is not a fungus.
C: The cold is not a parasite.
D: The cold is not a type of bacteria.
Question Number 38
Explanation:
Substances that cause allergic reactions are most commonly inhaled
and then cause symptoms such as coughing, sneezing, runny nose,
and etc.
Answer: F
Question Number 3
Explanation:
The reason malaria is able to cause symptoms in various parts of the
body is because the parasite enters the circulatory system, which
allows it to travel to different parts of the body.
Answer: B
Question Number 20
Explanation:
Because tinea pedis mainly affects external body parts and not
internal parts, a symptom could be swollen and itchy skin.
Answer: J
Question Number 52
Explanation:
Because the virus causes people to catch colds and infections easily,
it affects the immune system.
Answer: H
Question Number 11
Explanation:
Each square of the Punnett Square represents 25% of the offspring.
In order for an individual to have sickle cell anemia, they must have
two recessive (r) genes. Only one square has the genotype of rr,
representing 25% of the offspring.
Answer: B
Question Number 34
Explanation:
In order to produce offspring with the genotype Rr, one or both
parents must have at least one dominant gene (R) and one recessive
gene (r).
Answer: G
Question Number 52
Explanation:
The genotype produced would be Yy, with a yellow phenotype.
Answer: H
Question Number 59
Explanation:
There is always a 50/50 chance that offspring will be either male or
female, so the gender of the offspring of family members 4 and 5.
Both family members 4 and 5 have the genotype ee, therefore, their
it is only possible for their offspring to have the same genotype as
well.
Answer: C
Question Number 2
Explanation:
If a plant with smooth seeds is crossed with a plant with wrinkled
seeds and all of the offspring have smooth seeds, then the offspring
received genes from both parents, but the genotype for smoothness
is dominant.
Answer: H

F: Offspring receive one gene from each parent.
G: Offspring receive one gene from each parent.
J: The phenotype does not dominate, the genotype does.
Question Number 19
Explanation:
Individual 3 could either give a dominant (B) or a recessive (b) allele.
Individual 4 could only give a dominant (B) allele. Therefore, any
offspring will have at least 1 dominant (B) allele which indicated
Brown fur. Some offspring may carry the recessive allele (b) from
Individual 3, which is white fur.
Answer: D

A: These traits are not co-dominant.
B: The offspring do not have a 50% chance of having white fur.
Individual 4 can only give a dominant trait, so 100% of the offspring
will inherit the dominant trait, giving them brown fur.
C: Not all of the offspring will be carriers of white fur. Individual 3
can give either the dominant or recessive allele to its offspring. Only
those offspring that inherit the recessive allele from Individual 3
would be carriers of white fur.
Question Number 56
Explanation:
Based on the information in the pedigree, a prediction about
Generation III cannot be made. The pedigree does not indicate
whether the trait in question is dominant or recessive.
Answer: H

F: There is insufficient data to support this answer.
G: Only places in the Northern Hemisphere experience the max
number of daylight hours.
J: Only places in the Northern Hemisphere experience the max
Question Number 20
Explanation:
If dead leaves disappeared from the forest floor, the fungi would not
have anything to consume, thereby obtaining no energy and dying. If
the fungi die, the Springtails and Mites would have nothing to
consume, thereby obtaining no energy and dying. If the Springtails
and Mites die, the Spiders would have nothing to consume, thereby
obtaining no energy and dying also.
Answer: H
Question Number 26
Explanation:
If a virus reduces the number of rabbits, Leafy Weeds will increase,
and the Bobcats population will decrease.
Answer: F

G: There isn’t any indication that the bobcats are preyed upon.
H: The bobcats will not change its diet to consuming blackberries, it
is a carnivore and will not change to a herbivore.
J: The white-tailed deer are not directly affected by the rabbit
population.
Question Number 27
Explanation:
If the mosquito eggs are killed, the phytoplankton will increase and
the frogs will decrease (having less energy available to them from
mosquitoes)
Answer: A
Incorrect Answer Explanation:

B: Phytoplankton do not use the mosquitoes as an energy source.
C: Frogs and mosquitoes do not compete.
D: There is no indication that other insects will enter the food web.
Question Number 22
Explanation:
In ecosystems, energy flows from producers to high order consumers.
Producers would be the plants. The plants would be the energy
source for herbivores such as deer, properly called primary
consumers. The deer would be the energy source for carnivores,
such as coyotes, properly called secondary consumers.
Answer: F

G: Energy flow does not begin with herbivores, which are consumers.
Energy flow begins with producers.
H: Energy flow does not end with herbivores. The highest order
consumer mentioned is the coyote or the bobcat.
J: Energy flow does not begin with carnivores, which are consumers.
Energy flow begins with producers.
Question Number 34
Explanation:
Based on the information provided, a probable food chain would
show energy being transferred from cord grass, to grasshoppers, to
sparrows, and finally to hawks.
Answer: F

G: Energy would not flow from the cord grass to the hawk. Hawks are
carnivores, not herbivores.
H: Energy flow would not begin with a hawk. It always begins with a
producer.
J: Energy flow would not begin with a hawk. It always begins with a
producer.
Question Number 50
Explanation:
If humans overfished the food web shown in the diagram causing the
number of trout to decrease, the eagles would lose a source of
energy and need to get it from the gulls, forage fish, and snapping
turtles.
Answer: H

F: The number of forage fish would not decrease due to having fewer
trout to consume. They would decrease because eagles would rely
on them more for energy.
G: The number of plankton will not increase. The same organisms
would rely on them.
J: The snapping turtle would not lose a food source.
Question Number 3
Explanation:
Gene therapy is a new form of DNA technology. Altering genes to
cure a certain disorder may negatively affect other genes.
Answer: A

B: Changing the number of genes would not create a new species,
changing the number of chromosomes (which has genes on it) would.
C: If a scientist is replacing genes, the genes should already be
distinguished. Otherwise, the scientist would not know which gene to
replace.
D: There is no cure for sickle cell anemia.
Question Number 18
Explanation:
Selective breeding is the process of breeding plants and animals for
particular traits. Breeding two horses in order to produce stronger
offspring exhibit this.
Answer: J

F: This is an example of vegetative propagation.
G: This is an example of cloning.
H: This is an example of genetic engineering using recombinant DNA
to form transgenic organisms.
Question Number 11
Explanation:
Selective breeding is the process of breeding plants and animals for
particular genetic traits. A logical argument for selective breeding
would be advantages 2, 3, and 4.
Answer: B
Question Number 28
Explanation:
The BT-corn should stop being produced because the pollen may be
harmful to insects that help to pollinate the corn.
Answer: F

G: There is no indication that the BT-corn kernels may attract
unwanted animals that may damage the crop.
H: There is no information supporting this answer.
J: There is no information supporting this answer.
Question Number 42
Explanation:
A logical argument in favor of changing sickle-shaped cells into
normal -shaped cells is that it would cure patients of sickle cell
anemia by changing the shape of their red blood cells.
Answer: G

F: This would not cure people of malaria.
H: This would not eliminate the mutation.
J: This would not eliminate the mutation.
Question Number 35
Explanation:
Based on the graph provided, when bacteria 1 and 2 are combined,
the most lactic acid is produced. This combination is the most
effective way to make yogurt.
Answer: C
Question Number 50
Explanation:
Based on the graph provided, when fertilizer is used along with
bacteria, the rate of metabolic activity of bacteria increases, thereby
increasing the amount of oil that is cleaned up.
Answer: H
Question Number 35
Explanation:
Jorge can logically conclude that bacteria are necessary for digestion
to occur.
Answer: A

B: Bacteria are not produced by the human body.
C: The large intestine is not made up of bacteria. It is an organ made
up of tissues.
D: The large intestine is not diseased.
MCT2 Grade 8, Test 3, 3g, B
MCT2 Grade 8, Test 3, 3g, B
Question Number 5
Explanation:
If cellular respiration stopped, glucose breakdown would stop, which
is how the body gets energy out of the food we consume.
Answer: A

B: Cellular respiration does not control the growth of a cell or
removal of wastes from cells.
C: Cellular respiration is the method of breaking chemical bonds in
food to release energy, if cellular respiration stopped, “back-up”
energy could not be accessed.
D: Cellular respiration does not control the transport of materials
passively across the cell membrane.
Question Number 58
Explanation:
Cellular Respiration is the process by which cells obtain energy from
glucose. During respiration, cells break down simple food molecules,
such as sugar, and release the energy they contain.
Answer: H
Question Number 12
Explanation:
Based on the information provided, Bacteria B uses the oil they
consume by chemically breaking it down through oxidation, and
releasing energy in the process.
Answer: J

F: The oil is not burned up by the bacteria.
G: The oil does not become part of the bacterial cell’s membrane.
H: The oil is not destroyed by the bacteria, leaving behind energy
they can use.
Question Number 33
Explanation:
The missing component of this equation is energy.
Answer: C

A: Food is not a product of cellular respiration.
B: Wastes are not a product of cellular respiration.
D: Chlorophyll is not a product of cellular respiration.
Question Number 6
Explanation:
The lithosphere is the Earth’s crust and the upper mantle which is
rigid and immovable. The athenosphere is the upper mantle which is
hot and flowing.
Answer: F
Question Number 16
Explanation:
A convergent boundary is a line where two tectonic plates move
toward each other and there is a collision. Because the plates are of
similar density, neither will be subducted (pushed underneath),
causing a pile up and form a mountain range.
Answer: G
Question Number 4
Explanation:
The cause of lithospheric plate movement across the surface of the
Earth is the plates are driven across the surface by convection
currents within the plastic rock of the asthenosphere.
Answer: H

F: The plates are not being driven by bubbles.
G: The plates do not float on dense liquid material of the
asthenosphere.
J: The plates do not move because they are attached to solid rock of
the asthenosphere.
Question Number 45
Explanation:
Based on the diagram, the asthenosphere is represented by letter C.
Answer: C
Question Number 2
Explanation:
Divergent plate boundaries are locations where continental plates
are moving away from one another.
Answer: F

G, H, & J: Plates joining together or colliding would create a
convergent boundary.
Question Number 17
Explanation:
The oceanic plate is made of denser rock than the continental crust,
so the oceanic plate gets subducted (pushed underneath) where it
descends and gets melted by geothermal heat.
Answer: D
MCT2 Grade 8, Test 2, 4b, A
Question Number 49
Explanation:
Based on the diagram, the feature that can form at the boundary of
the two plates depicted are volcanic mountain ranges because one
oceanic plate melts underneath the continental plate, forming
composite volcanoes on the continent.
Answer: B
MCT2 Grade 8, Test 2, 4b, A

Question Number 59
Explanation:
The speed indicates that the waves are traveling from less dense
material to more dense material.
Answer: D
Question Number 7
Explanation:
Wind from the jet stream is coming from the North, so it will bring in
cold weather. Also, the jet stream symbol has a triangle on it
indicating the front will be cold.
Answer: B
Question Number 40
Explanation:
High pressure is usually associated with good weather and low
pressure is usually associated with bad weather. The front is moving
East from Phoenix, where the temperature on Tuesday was 90°F and
83°F on Thursday, indicating that the temperature is dropping/
cooling. Also, the symbol for cold front is represented in the key: a
line with a centered triangle. Cooler weather can be expected in
Amarillo along with rain.
Answer: G
Question Number 53
Explanation:
Based on the map, in the New England area on Thursday and Friday,
the weather should be expected to consist of light rain followed by
warm, humid weather.
Answer: A
Question Number 58
Explanation:
If in the early afternoon, the barometric pressure and temperature
are both dropping rapidly, this indicates that thunderstorms will
probably occur in the late afternoon or evening.
Answer: H

F: These conditions are not indicative of clear, sunny weather.
G: These conditions are not indicative of cloudy weather with little
chance of rain.
J: These conditions are not indicative of clearing weather with rain
chances the next day.
Question Number 47
Explanation:
Lisa’s methods are useful in decreasing global warming. They
reduce the amount of carbon dioxide into the atmosphere.
Answer: C

A: The methods listed do not release CO2 into the air.
B: Releasing heat energy into the air will not contribute to global
warming.
D: The methods listed do not reduce the amount of renewable
resources.
Question Number 60
Explanation:
A renewable energy resource is something that is natural, usable all
the time and never run out of. A non-renewable energy resource is
one that cannot be replaced, once all of it is used, it is gone forever.
Wind is generated by the air, geothermal energy is generated by the
sun, and hydroelectric energy is generated by water. All of these are
renewable.
Answer: G
Question Number 18
Explanation:
Based on the graph, the logical reason for using renewable resources
in Mississippi is so that energy generations would greatly reduce the
total amount of greenhouse gas emissions.
Answer: J

F: The efficiency of land use would not need to be improved.
G: All emissions of greenhouse gases would not be eliminated.
H: The expense cannot be determined by the graph.
Question Number 60
Explanation:
A renewable energy source that does not produce carbon dioxide is
wind.
Answer: G

F: Coal burning produces carbon dioxide.
H: Biomass burning produces carbon dioxide.
J: Burning fossil fuels produces carbon dioxide, and fossil fuels are
nonrenewable.
Question Number 14
Explanation:
Based on the diagram provided, the Northern Hemisphere of the
Earth is tilted toward the sun and the Southern Hemisphere is tilted
away from the sun. Because the Northern Hemisphere is tilted
toward the sun, the days will be longer than the nights. Since the
Southern Hemisphere is tilted away from the sun, the days will be
shorter than the nights.
Answer: J
Question Number 49
Explanation:
The sun shines more on the Northern Hemisphere, producing longer
days and shorter nights. This would indicate summer.
Answer: B
Question Number 51
Explanation:
Because of the tilt of the Earth on its axis and the orbit of the Earth
around the sun, the polar regions are either tilted toward or away
from the sun, depending on the time of the year.
Answer: D
Question Number 9
Explanation:
During the time of year where the Southern Hemisphere is tilted
toward the sun, the days will be longer.
Answer: A

B: The days will be longer, not the nights.
C: The length of seasons will not change.
D: The placement of sunrise will not change.
Question Number 46
Explanation:
On June’s summer solstice, all places in the Northern Hemisphere
experience the maximum number of daylight hours.
Answer: J

F: Only places in the Northern Hemisphere experience the max
G: Only places in the Northern Hemisphere experience the max
H: Only places in the Northern Hemisphere experience the max
Question Number 47
Explanation:
If Earth had a perpendicular axis of 0°, there would be no seasons.
Answer: A
Question Number 28
Explanation:
The age of the galaxy is determined by the age of the oldest stars
found. The older the star; the older the galaxy.
Answer: J
Question Number 55
Explanation:
Scientists measure wavelengths of radiation from galaxies to
determine movement of galaxies away from Earth.
Answer: D
Question Number 7
Explanation:
The type of wavelength that would detect the hottest stars would be
Ultraviolet (UV) rays.
Answer: B
MCT2 Grade 8, Test 2, 4f, A
Question Number 16
Explanation:
Wavelengths of light from distant galaxies can be used to determine
the distance between Earth and the galaxy because the light from
distant galaxies shows a shift to longer wavelengths, and the shift
increases as the distance increases.
Answer: G

F: The color of the light does not indicate the age of the galaxy.
H: The amount of light scattering does not aid in determining
distance.
J: The strength of the light does not aid in determining distance.
Question Number 15
Explanation:
A good reason (logical justification) for continuing research on the
use of fast growing plants to be used as flooring material is best
supported by the fact that fast growing plants are renewable and
could be produced faster than lumber from trees.
Answer: C

A: There is no evidence that natural products are stronger than man-
made products.
B: Hardwood can also be used for many products.
D: There is no evidence that natural products decompose faster than
man-made materials.
Question Number 29
Explanation:
The best reason (logical justification) for continuing research on the
use of vegetable oil as an automotive fuel is because fossil fuels are
becoming limited because they are non-renewable. Vegetable oil is
made from plants which are renewable.
Answer: D
Question Number 17
Explanation:
A logical reason for continuing this research is so plants that can
tolerate the cold could allow citrus trees to grow in colder climates.
Answer: B

A: Fungi infection is not a concern.
C: Preservation of the fruit is not a concern.
D: Human cells are not the concern.
Question Number 29
Explanation:
This research should be continued because studying the genes of
insect-resistant plants could help in the development of crops that
are resistant to insects.
Answer: B
Question Number 48
Explanation:
A commercial benefit of researching natural chemicals that attract
insects would be in finding a way to lure agricultural pests away from
crops.
Answer: G
Question Number 42
Explanation:
Based on the diagram and table, Mississippi will receive 80 mph
winds, predicting no real damage to buildings, damage to
unanchored mobile homes, and some damage to poorly constructed
signs.
Answer: F
Question Number 54
Explanation:
Trade winds will blow in from the Northeast in the Northern
Hemisphere, causing the hurricane to move toward the Atlantic
Coast.
Answer: F
Question Number 5
Explanation:
Based on the map, the fate of the hurricane is that the cold arctic air
around the Aleutian Islands will weaken the hurricane causing it to
break apart before hitting landfall.
Answer: D

A: The map does not indicate that it will make landfall in Alaska.
B: The map does not indicate that it will bounce off the Kamchatka
Peninsula and spin toward Japan.
C: The map does not indicate that the cold arctic air will push the
hurricane south toward the Hawaiian Islands.
Question Number 51
Explanation:
Based on the map, during the 4-5 day track, the hurricane force
winds will hit Mississippi sometime Friday Morning.
Answer: A

MCT2 Grade 8, Test 2, 1a, P

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MCT2 Grade 8, Test 2, 1a, P

MCT2 Grade 8, Test 2, 1a, P

MCT2 Grade 8, Test 1, 1b, P

Incorrect Answer Explanations:

MCT2 Grade 8, Test 2, 1b, P

Incorrect Answer Explanations:

MCT2 Grade 8, Test 2, 1b, P

MCT2 Grade 8, Test 1, 1c, P

Incorrect Answer Explanations:

MCT2 Grade 8, Test 1, 1d, P

Incorrect Answer Explanations:

MCT2 Grade 8, Test 2, 1d, B

MCT2 Grade 8, Test 1, 1e, P

MCT2 Grade 8, Test 2, 1e, A

Incorrect Answer Explanations:

MCT2 Grade 8, Test 1, 1f, P

Incorrect Answer Explanations:

MCT2 Grade 8, Test 2, 1f, P

MCT2 Grade 8, Test 1, 1g, P

Incorrect Answer Explanations:

MCT2 Grade 8, Test 1, 1g, P

MCT2 Grade 8, Test 1, 1h, A

Incorrect Answer Explanations:

MCT2 Grade 8, Test 2, 1h, P

Incorrect Answer Explanations:

MCT2 Grade 8, Test 2, 1h, P

MCT2 Grade 8, Test 1, 2a, A

MCT2 Grade 8, Test 1, 2a, B

MCT2 Grade 8, Test 2, 2a, A

MCT2 Grade 8, Test 2, 2a, P

MCT2 Grade 8, Test 2, 2a, B

MCT2 Grade 8, Test 1, 2b, P

Incorrect Answer Explanations:

MCT2 Grade 8, Test 2, 2b, P

Incorrect Answer Explanations:

MCT2 Grade 8, Test 2, 2b, B

MCT2 Grade 8, Test 1, 2c, P

MCT2 Grade 8, Test 1, 2c, A

Incorrect Answer Explanations:

MCT2 Grade 8, Test 2, 2c, P

Incorrect Answer Explanations:

MCT2 Grade 8, Test 2, 2c, P

MCT2 Grade 8, Test 1, 2d, P

MCT2 Grade 8, Test 1, 2d, P

MCT2 Grade 8, Test 2, 2d, A

MCT2 Grade 8, Test 1, 2e, P

MCT2 Grade 8, Test 1, 2e, B

MCT2 Grade 8, Test 2, 2e, B

MCT2 Grade 8, Test 2, 2e, P

MCT2 Grade 8, Test 1, 2f, B

MCT2 Grade 8, Test 1, 2f, P

MCT2 Grade 8, Test 1, 2f, P

F. A basketball bounces upward when it is dropped on

MCT2 Grade 8, Test 2, 2f, P

Incorrect Answer Explanations:

MCT2 Grade 8, Test 2, 2f, P

MCT2 Grade 8, Test 2, 2f, B

MCT2 Grade 8, Test 1, 3a, P

MCT2 Grade 8, Test 1, 3a, P

MCT2 Grade 8, Test 1, 3a, P

MCT2 Grade 8, Test 2, 3a, P

MCT2 Grade 8, Test 2, 3a, P

Incorrect Answer Explanations: