CFI Lesson 8 Regulations

COPYRIGHT NOTICE
This presentation was authored by Roger M. Stenbock CFII J.D. and

is the exclusive property of Stenbock Communications Inc. Use of this
presentation in any form, whether used independently, or incorporated
into other works, without written permission or an explicit license from
Stenbock Communications Inc. is prohibited. This copyright notice
must be included as the first slide of this presentation for any use,
whether used wholly, in part, or modified in any form.
© 2001-2006 Stenbock Communications Inc. All rights reserved.
© 2001-2006 Stenbock Communications Inc.

Definitions Emergency Deviations
Accident Reports Pre-Flight Planning
Documents Use of Seatbelts
Medical Certificates Alcohol and drugs
Pilot Certifications Parachutes
Records Safety Pilot
Endorsements Fuel Reserves
Pilot Tests Transponder
Pre-Solo Requirements Minimum Equipment
Recency of Experience Supplemental Oxygen

About the Regulations
 Only Regulations covered for the
Flight Instructor Knowledge Test
presented in this lesson;
 Regulations are provided in only
summarized form.
 Complete regulations found in the
FARAIM and online at:
www.access.gpo.gov/nara/cfr/cfr
html_00/Title_14/14tab_00.html

Crewmember
A person assigned to duty in the
aircraft during flight.
Operational Control
The exercise of authority over
initiating, conducting, or
terminating a flight
Stop-Way
An area designated for use in
decelerating an aborted takeoff
V2 (Takeoff Safety Speed)
Ensures that the airplane can
maintain an acceptable climb
gradient with the critical engine
inoperative.

What is V2 speed?
A – Minimum takeoff speed.
B – Takeoff safety speed.
C – Takeoff decision speed.
V2 means takeoff safety speed.

NTSB
National Transportation
Safety Board
Aircraft Accident
An occurrence associated with
the operation of an aircraft
which takes place between the
time any person boards the
aircraft with the intention of
flight and all such persons have
disembarked, and in which any
person suffers death or serious
injury, or in which the aircraft
receives substantial damage.

Substantial damage
Damage or failure which adversely
affects the structural strength,
performance, or flight characteristics
of the aircraft, and which would
normally require major repair.
Serious Injury
 Hospitalization for more than 48 hours,
within 7 days from the date of the injury;
 Fracture of any bone (except simple
fractures of fingers, toes, or nose);
 Severe hemorrhages, nerve, muscle, or
tendon damage;
 Involves any internal organ; or
 Involves second- or third-degree burns
affecting more than 5% of the body
surface
Report on an Incident
Required by NTSB 830.5(a) shall be filed only as
requested by an authorized representative of the
board.
Immediate Notification
 Flight control system malfunction;
 Inability of flight crewmember to perform
normal flight duties;
 Failure of structural components of a
turbine engine excluding compressor and
turbine blades and vanes;
 In-flight fire;
 Aircraft in-flight collision;
 Damage to property, other than the
aircraft, estimated to exceed $25,000.

Notification to the NTSB is required when
there has been substantial damage which
A – adversely affects aircraft performance.

B – causes small punctured holes in the skin
or fabric.
C – results in more than $25,000 for repairs to
the aircraft.
Substantial damage is defined as damage or failure which adversely

affects the structural strength, performance, or flight characteristics of
the aircraft.

To Act as Pilot-In-Command (PIC)
 Current pilot certificate is in his/her
possession, or readily accessible in the
aircraft;
 Official Photo I.D. in his/her possession, or
readily accessible in the aircraft;
 Current Medical Certificate in his/her
possession, or readily accessible in the
aircraft.

Operation of Aircraft
 An appropriate and current airworthiness
certificate;
 A copy of the applicable operations
specifications (operating limitations);
 A registration certificate issued to its owner;
 Approved manual material, markings, and
placards;
 Must contain en-route flight, navigation, and
communication procedures for the dispatch;
 Voice recorder if required.
An aircraft's operating limitations may be found in
the
A – FAA-approved aircraft flight manual.
B – owner's handbook published by the aircraft

manufacturer.
C – aircraft flight manual, approved manual

material, markings, and placards, or any
combination thereof.
No person may operate a U.S.-registered civil aircraft for which an

Aircraft Flight manual is required by 14 CFR 21.5 unless there is
available in the aircraft a current approved Flight Manual, approved
manual material, markings, and placards or any combination
thereof.
Medical Expires on:
 Younger than 40 – on
the 36th month after
the month of the date
of the examination;
 40 and older on the

24th month after the
month of the date of
examination shown on
the certificate .

Limitations:
 May exercise commercial
privileges during the first 12
months;
 but the certificate is valid

only for private pilot
privileges during the
following (12 or 24) calendar
months, depending on the
applicant's age.

Limitations:
 May exercise Airline
Transport Pilot privileges
during the first 6
calendar months,
commercial privileges
during the following 6
calendar months;
 And private pilot

privileges during the
following (12 or 24)
calendar months,
depending on the
applicant's age.

A Third-Class Medical Certificate was issued on
May 3 to a person over 40 years of age. To
exercise the privileges of a Private Pilot
Certificate, the medical certificate will be valid
through
A – May 3, 24 months later.
B – May 31, 24 months later.
C – May 31, 36 months later.
A Third-Class Medical Certificate expires at the end of the last day

of the 24th month after the month of the date of examination shown
on the certificate if the person, has reached his or her 40th birthday
on or before the date of examination, for operations requiring a
Private Pilot Certificate.
Student Pilot
 Certificate expires at the
end of the 24th month after
the month in which it is
issued;
 Must be at least 16 years of
age;
 May not operate an aircraft
in solo flight unless the
Student Pilot Certificate is
endorsed by the Instructor;
 A student pilot may not
operate an aircraft in a solo
cross-country flight without
an Instructor endorsement;

25 mile rule
 May allow a student to
practice solo takeoffs
and landings at another
airport within 25 NM
from the airport at which
the student receives
instruction;
 Instructor must have

flown with that student
prior to authorizing
those takeoffs and
landings, and endorsed
the student pilot's
logbook accordingly.

Cross Country
 Flight beyond a radius of 25 NM
from the point of takeoff;
 Flight instructor must endorse a

student pilot's logbook for solo
cross-country flights.

Cross Country Endorsement
 Student pilot's logbook
endorsement that the
instructor has reviewed the
preflight planning for cross-
country flight, and the pilot is
prepared to make the flight
safely;

Cross Country Endorsement
 The instructor may also
endorse for repeated solo
cross-country flights under
stipulated conditions over
a course of not more than
50 NM with flight
instruction in both
directions over the route,
including takeoffs and
landings at the airports to
be used;
 The student pilot

certificate must be
endorsed for cross-country
operations.

Solo Flight Requirements
 Flight preparation
procedures;
 Taxiing or surface operations;
 Takeoffs and landings;
 Straight-and-level flight and
turns;
 Climbs and climbing turns;
 Airport traffic patterns;
 Descents with and without
turns ;
 Flight at various airspeeds;

Solo Flight Requirements
 Stall entries from various flight
attitudes;
 Emergency procedures;
 Ground reference maneuvers;
 Approaches to a landing area

with simulated engine
malfunctions;
 Slips to a landing and
 Go-arounds.

What is the duration of a Student Pilot
Certificate?
A – Indefinite.
B – 12 calendar months from the month in which

it was issued.
C – 24 calendar months from the month in which

it was issued.
A Student Pilot Certificate expires at the end of the 24th month after
the month in which it is issued.

Limitations – may not
 Carry more than one
passenger;
 Pay less than the pro-rata

share of the operating
expenses of a flight with a
passenger;
 Fly an aircraft with more than 4

seats or with more than 180 HP
nor with retractable landing
gear;
 Fly in airspace in which

communication with air traffic
control is required;

Limitations – may not
 May fly beyond 50 NM
from the departure
airport with training
and endorsements
from an authorized
instructor;
 Be at least 17 years of
age and have a current
Third-Class Medical.

Required Experience
 A Recreational Pilot with
less than 400 logged flight
hours and
 No PIC time in the

preceding 180 days may not
act as pilot-in-command of
an aircraft until he/she has
received flight instruction
from an authorized flight
instructor.

A Recreational Pilot Certificate may be issued
for
A – airships, gliders, and balloons.
B – airplanes, gyroplanes, and helicopters.
C – airplanes, gliders, helicopters, and

gyroplanes.
A recreational pilot may not act as pilot-in-command of an aircraft

that is classified as a glider, airship, or balloon.

Requirements
 At least 17 years
of age;
 Third-Class
Medical;
 At least a total of
40 hours of flight
instruction and
solo flight time.

Instructional hours
 3 hours of night
instruction, including
10 takeoffs and
landings and one
cross-country flight
over 100 NM;
 3 hours of cross-
country instruction;
 3 hours of instrument
instruction;

Instructional hours
 One flight must be at

least 150 NM, with
landings at a
minimum of 3 points
and
 one of which is at
least 50 NM from the
original departure
point.

Charitable Flights
 May act as pilot-in-command
of an aircraft used in a
passenger-carrying airlift
sponsored by a charitable
organization;
 Passengers may make a
donation to the organization,
if he/she has logged at least
200 hours of flight time.
What night flight training is required for an
unrestricted Private Pilot Certificate with an
airplane rating?
A – 3 hours to include 10 takeoffs and 10
landings and one cross-country flight of
over 100 nautical miles.
B – 3 hours to include five takeoffs and five
landings (each landing from a traffic
pattern).
C – 1 hour to include three takeoffs and three
landings.
An applicant for a Private Pilot Certificate with an airplane rating
must have 3 hours of night flight training that includes one cross-
country flight of over 100 NM, and 10 takeoffs and 10 landings to a
full stop (with each landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern) at
an airport.

Qualifications
 At least 18 years of age,
and must hold at least a
valid Third-Class
Medical;
 A Second-Class Medical
Certificate is required to
exercise commercial
pilot privileges;

Qualifications
 Must have a total of at
least 250 hours of flight
time as a pilot. This
must include a total of
at least 50 hours as
pilot-in-command of
cross-country flights;
 Must hold an instrument
rating or the Certificate
is endorsed with a
limitation prohibiting the
carriage of passengers
for hire in airplanes on
cross-country flights of
more than 50 nautical
miles or at night.

What is the minimum age required to be eligible
for a Commercial Pilot Certificate?
A – 17.
B – 18.
C – 21.
To be eligible for a Commercial Pilot Certificate, a person must be at

least 18 years of age.

Certificate
 Expires at the end of the 24th
month after the month in
which it was last renewed ;
 Must have received flight

instruction from a flight
instructor who has held a
Flight Instructor Certificate
during the 24 months
immediately preceding the
date the instruction is given,
with at least at least 200 hours
of flight instruction;

Certificate
 Instructor must sign the
logbook for each person to
whom he/she has given flight
or ground instruction and
specify in that book the
amount of time and the date
on which it was given.

Logbook Records
 Each person or student
pilot certificate he/she
has endorsed for solo
flight privileges;
 Signed a certification for
a written, flight, or
practical test, including
the result of the test;
 Instructor must sign the
logbook for each person
to whom he/she has
given flight or ground
instruction and specify in
that book the amount of
time and the date on
which it was given.

Additional Ratings
Must have had at

least 15 hours as
pilot-in-command
in the category
and class of
aircraft
appropriate to this
rating sought.

Instruction time limits
 May not conduct more than 8 hours of
flight instruction in any period of 24
consecutive hours.
 The ATP may not instruct for more
than 8 hours in one day or more than
36 hours in a 7-day period.

Student Pilot solo-cross country
 Must give pre-solo instruction;
 Must find that the student has
prepared for that solo-cross
county.

Make and Model
Endorsement
May not authorize a
student to make a solo
flight unless he/she
possesses a valid Student
Pilot Certificate endorsed
for solo in the make and
model aircraft to be flown.

Make and Model Experience
May not give flight instruction required for the
issuance of a certificate or category, or class rating in
a multi-engine airplane or a helicopter unless he/she
has had at least 5 hours of experience as pilot-in-
command in the make and model.

General Limits
 May have his/her certificate renewed
for an additional period of 24 months;
 Expired Certificate renew by passing

the practical test;
 Basic ground instructor ok for ground

training of recreational or private
pilots;
 Advanced ground instructor ok for

ground training for any flight review,
and a recommendation for a
knowledge test;

General Limits
 Instrument ground instructor ok for
ground training of an instrument rating,
instrument proficiency check, and a
recommendation for a knowledge test;
 May not perform ground instructor

duties unless within the preceding 12
months, the person has served for at
least 3 months as a ground instructor.

What is the duration of a Flight Instructor
Certificate?
A – Indefinite, unless suspended or revoked.
B – 24 months after the month in which it was

issued or renewed.
C – Indefinite, as long as the holder has a

current pilot and medical certificate
appropriate to the pilot privileges being
exercised.
A Flight Instructor Certificate expires at the end of the 24th month

after the month in which it was last issued or renewed.

The holder of an expired Flight instructor
Certificate may exchange that certificate for a
new one by
A – passing the appropriate practical test.
B – presenting a satisfactory record of training.
C – successfully completing a flight instructor

refresher.
The holder of an expired Flight Instructor Certificate may exchange

that certificate for a new certificate by passing the practical test
prescribed in 14 CFR 61.187.

General Limits
 Must have a flight review, within the
preceding 24 calendar months;
 The flight review consists of a minimum

of 1 hour of ground instruction and, for
other than glider pilots, 1 hour of flight
training;
 For glider pilots, it must also include

either 3 training flights in a glider in
which a 360 degree turn is made, or 1
hour of flight training;
 The recent flight experience

requirements, must be shown by a
reliable record.

What flight time must be recorded by a pilot
exercising the privileges of a commercial
certificate?
A – All flight time.
B – Only the flight time necessary to meet the

recent experience requirements.
C – All flight time flown for hire with passengers

and/or cargo aboard the aircraft.
The aeronautical training and experience used to meet the

requirements for a certificate or rating, or the recent flight
experience requirements, must be shown by a reliable record. The
logging of other flight time is not required.

Student Pilot
 May not operate an
aircraft on a solo
flight in Class B
airspace unless
he/she:
 Has received both

ground and flight
instruction in Class
B airspace in the
specific Class B
airspace for which
the flight is
authorized;

Student Pilot
 The logbook of that
student pilot has
been endorsed
within the preceding
90 days;
 The endorsement
specifies that the
student pilot has
received the
required ground and
flight instruction and
has been found
competent;

High Performance/Complex Aircraft
 Private or Commercial Pilot may not act as pilot-in-
command of an airplane that has more than 200
horsepower, or that has a retractable landing gear,
flaps, and a controllable propeller, unless he/she has
received ground and flight instruction from an
authorized flight instructor who has certified in
his/her logbook that he/she is competent;

Tail wheel airplane
 Must receive flight instruction and an endorsement
in the pilot's logbook certifying the pilot is
competent in the above mentioned maneuvers.

Large Airplanes and Jets
 Must hold a type rating for any aircraft of more than
12,500 pounds maximum certificated takeoff weight
(except lighter-than-air), turbojet-powered airplanes,
or other aircraft specified by the Administrator
through aircraft type certificate procedures.

What minimum pilot certificate will permit a pilot
to enter all Class B airspace?
A – Private Pilot Certificate.
B – Commercial Pilot Certificate.
C – Student Pilot Certificate with an appropriate

endorsement.
A solo student pilot may be authorized to operate an aircraft

according to VFR in Class B airspace if he/she meets the
requirements of 14 CFR 61.95, and has the appropriate
endorsement.

FAA knowledge Exam
 Must have proper
identification;
 Must contain the applicant's

photograph;
 Signature, date of birth, and
 Residential address.

Pilot Flight Test
 Must have passed
required knowledge test
since the beginning of
the 24th month before
the month in which
he/she takes the flight
test;
 Must hold a current

medical certificate
appropriate to the
certificate he/she seeks;

Pilot Flight Test
 Must have a written
statement from an
authorized instructor
certifying that he/she has
given the applicant flight
instruction in preparation
for the flight test within
60 days and finds
him/her competent to
pass the test .

Pilot Test Failure
 May apply for retesting upon
presenting a written
statement from an authorized
instructor certifying that
he/she has given flight or
ground instruction as
appropriate to the applicant
and finds him/her competent
to pass the test.
Prohibited Acts
 Copying or intentionally
removing a knowledge test;
 Giving to another, or
receiving from another, any
part or copy of that test;
 Giving or receiving help on

that test from any person
during the period that test is
being given;
 Taking any part of that test

on behalf of another person;
 Using any material or aid

during the period that test is
being given.
What is one requirement for an aircraft furnished
for a practical test?
A – All flight instruments must be fully functioning.
B – Must have no prescribed operating limitations

that prohibit its use in any required area of
operation.
C – Dual flight controls and engine power controls

must be operable and easily reached by both
pilots in a normal manner.
Aircraft furnished for a flight test must have no prescribed operating
limitations that prohibit its use in any pilot operation required on the
test.

Before solo flight
 Must satisfactorily complete a
knowledge examination covering
the appropriate portions of 14
CFR Parts 61 and 91;
 Must be administered and graded

by the instructor who endorses
the student's pilot certificate for
solo flight.

Who is responsible for administering the
required knowledge test to a student pilot prior
to solo flight?
A – The student's authorized instructor.
B – Any certificated ground instructor.
C – Any certificated flight instructor.
The student's authorized instructor must administer the test, and at

the conclusion of the test review all incorrect answers with the
student before authorizing that student to conduct a solo flight.

Night Time is:
 the period beginning 1 hour after sunset and
ending 1 hour before sunrise (as published in the
American Air Almanac)

Requirements
 No person may act as pilot-in-command
of any aircraft carrying passengers at
night unless:
 within the preceding 90 days, he/she has

made at least 3 takeoffs and 3 landings
to a full stop during that period in the
category, class, and type (if type rating
is required) of aircraft to be used.

Additional Requirements
 Unless, within the preceding 90 days,
he/she has made at least 3 takeoffs and
3 landings as sole manipulator of the
flight controls in an aircraft of the same
category and class, and if a type rating
is required, of the same type.
 If the aircraft is a tail wheel airplane, the

landings must have been made to a full
stop in a tail wheel airplane.
 May log instrument time only for that

flight time when the person operates the
aircraft solely by reference to
instruments under actual or simulated
instrument flight conditions.
If recency of experience requirements for night
flight are not met and official sunset is 1830, the
latest time passengers may be carried is
A – 1829.
B – 1859.
C – 1929.
Night time is the period beginning 1 hour after sunset and ending 1
hour before sunrise (as published in the American Air Almanac).

Requirements:
 Within 30 days of address
change must notify
Department of
Transportation, Federal
Aviation Administration,
Airman Certification Branch,
Box 25082, Oklahoma City, OK
73125 of his/her new address;
 May notify in writing via their

website www.faa.gov.

When a permanent change of address occurs,
pilot instructor privileges may not be exercised
unless the Airman Certification Branch in
notified, in writing, within
A – 30 days.
B – 60 days.
C – 90 days.
The holder of a Pilot or Flight Instructor Certificate who has made a
change in his/her permanent mailing address may not, after 30 days
from the date he/she moved, exercise the privileges of his/her
certificate unless he/she has notified in writing the Department of
Transportation, Federal Aviation Administration, Airman
Certification Branch, Box 25082, Oklahoma City, OK 73125, of
his/her new address.
Requirements:
 Must have in preceding 12
months made at least 3
flights as pilot-in-command
of a glider towed by an
aircraft;

Requirements:
 Using ground-tow procedures: Must have
satisfactorily accomplished ground and
flight training on ground-tow procedures
and operations, and has received an
instructor endorsement;
 Using aero-tow procedures: Must have
flight training on air-tow procedures and
operations, and has received an
 Using self launch procedures: Must have
flight training on self-launch procedures
and operations, and has received an

A private pilot with an airplane single-engine land rating
may act as pilot in command of an airplane towing a
glider if, within the preceding 12 months, this pilot has
made
A – ten actual or simulated glider tows.
B – three flights as pilot in command of a glider towed

by an aircraft.
C – at least six flights as pilot in command of an airplane

towing a glider.
No pilot may act as pilot-in-command of an aircraft towing a glider
unless he/she meets the following requirements: Within the
preceding 12 months he/she has made at least 3 flights as pilot-in-
command of a glider towed by an aircraft.

Permitted Actions:
 In an emergency requiring
immediate action, the pilot-in-
command of an aircraft may
deviate from the FAA regulations
to the extent required to meet
that emergency.
 Each pilot-in-command who is

given priority by ATC in an
emergency, shall, if requested by
ATC, submit a detailed report of
that emergency within 48 hours
to the chief of that ATC facility.

What action is appropriate if you deviate from an air
traffic control instruction during an emergency and are
given priority?
A – Submit a report to the nearest FAA regional office

within 48 hours.
B – Submit a report to the manager of the air traffic

control facility within 24 hours.
C – If requested, submit a detailed report within 48 hours

to the manager of the air traffic control facility.
Each pilot-in-command who is given priority by ATC in an

emergency, shall, if requested by ATC, submit a detailed report of
that emergency within 48 hours to the chief of that ATC facility.

Each Pilot shall:
 Become familiar with all
available information
concerning that flight. This
includes:
 Weather reports and
forecasts ;
 Fuel requirements;
 Alternate airports available;
 Known traffic delays;

Each Pilot shall:
 Runway lengths at airports of
intended use;
 Takeoff and landing distance
information; and
 Flotation gear requirements
if flight is conducted for hire
over water and beyond
power-off gliding distance
from shore.

Which preflight action is required for every flight?
A – Check weather reports and forecasts.
B – Determine runway length at airports of intended use.
C – Determine alternatives if the flight cannot be

completed.
Each pilot-in-command shall, before beginning a flight, become

familiar with all available information concerning that flight. This
information must include runway lengths at airports of intended use.

Seatbelt usage:
 During takeoff and landing, and while en route,
each required flight crewmember shall be at
his/her station unless absence is necessary due
to physiological needs, and keep the seatbelt
fastened while at his/her station;
 Must notify passenger to use seatbelts and or

shoulder harness during all takeoff and landing
operations.
Which statement is true regarding the use of seatbelts
and shoulder harnesses?
A – Crewmembers must keep seatbelts and shoulder

harnesses fastened at all times during movement on
the surface.
B – The pilot in command must ensure that each person

on board an aircraft is briefed on how to fasten and
unfasten seatbelts.
C – Passengers must keep seatbelts fastened at all times

while seated.
No person may takeoff or land a U. S.-registered civil aircraft
(except free balloons that incorporate baskets or gondolas and
airships) unless the pilot-in-command of hat aircraft ensures that
each person on board is briefed on how to fasten and unfasten
that person's safety belt.

Pilot Responsibilities:
 No pilot of a civil aircraft may allow a
person who appears to be intoxicated;
 May not act or attempt to act as a

crewmember of a civil aircraft within 8
hours after the consumption of any
alcoholic beverage or while having .04%
by weight or more alcohol in the blood;
 A drug related conviction of any Federal

or state statute is grounds for: (1) denial
of an application for any certificate or
rating issued under 14 CFR Part 61 for a
period of up to 1 year after the date of
final conviction; or (2) suspension or
revocation of any certificate or rating
issued under 14 CFR Part 61.
No person may act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft
with a minimum blood alcohol level of
A – any detectable amount.
B - .04 percent or greater.
C – 0.2 percent or greater.
No person may act or attempt to act as a crewmember of a civil

aircraft while having .04% by weight or more alcohol in the blood.

Pilot Responsibilities:
 Unless all occupants are wearing an
approved parachute, you may not
execute any intentional maneuver
that exceeds a bank of 60 degree
relative to the horizon, or a nose-up
or nose-down attitude of 30 degree
relative to the horizon.
 May not allow a parachute that is

available for emergency use to be
carried in that aircraft unless it is an
approved type and if a chair-type
(canopy in back), and it has been
packed by a certificated and
appropriately-rated parachute rigger
within the preceding 120 days.

When must each occupant of an aircraft wear an
approved parachute?
A – When flying over water beyond gliding distance of the

shore.
B – When practicing spins or any flight maneuver for any

certificate or rating.
C – When an intentional maneuver that exceeds 30

degree nose-up or nose-down relative to the horizon
is made.
Unless each occupant of the aircraft is wearing an approved
parachute, no pilot of a civil aircraft, carrying any person (other
than a crewmember), may execute any intentional maneuver that
exceeds a bank of 60 degree relative to the horizon, or a nose-up
or nose-down attitude of 30 degree relative to the horizon.
Simulated Instrument Flight:
 No person may operate a civil
aircraft in simulated
instrument flight unless that
aircraft has fully functioning
dual controls, and an
appropriately-rated pilot
occupies the other seat as
safety pilot.
A pilot in a multiengine land airplane is planning to
practice IFR procedures under a hood in VMC conditions.
The safety pilot must possess at least a
A – Recreational Pilot Certificate with an airplane rating.
B – Private Pilot Certificate with airplane multiengine land

rating and a current medical certificate.
C – Private Pilot Certificate with airplane and instrument

ratings, but a current medical certificate is not
required.
No person may operate a civil aircraft in simulated instrument
flight unless the other control seat is occupied by a safety pilot
who possesses at least a Private Pilot Certificate with category
and class ratings appropriate to the aircraft being flown.

Minimum Fuel for:
 Day VFR unless (considering wind
and forecast weather conditions)
there is enough fuel to fly to the first
point of intended landing and,
assuming normal cruising speed,
during daylight, to fly after that for at
least 30 minutes.
 At night, the required amount of

reserve is enough to fly to the first
point of intended landing and,
assuming normal cruising speed, at
night, to fly after that for at least 45
minutes.

What is the minimum fuel requirements for flight under
VFR at night in a airplane? Enough to fly to
A – the first point of intended landing and to fly after that

for 20 minutes at normal cruise speed.
B – the first point of intended landing and to fly after that

C – the first point of intended landing and to fly after that

No person may begin a flight in an airplane under VFR unless

(considering wind and forecast weather conditions) there is
enough fuel to fly to the first point of intended landing and,
assuming normal cruising speed, at night, to fly after that for at
least 45 minutes.
Requirements:
 Transponder with mode C
capability is required for flight
in all airspace of the 48
contiguous states and the
District of Columbia at and
above 10,000 feet MSL and
below the floor of a Class A
airspace, excluding the
airspace at and below 2,500
feet AGL;
 ATC may authorize deviations

on a continuing basis, or for
individual flights, for
operations of aircraft without a
transponder,

A coded transponder with altitude reporting capability is
required for all controlled airspace
A – below 14,500 feet MSL.
B – above 12,500 feet MSL (excluding airspace at or

below 2,500 feet AGL).
C – at and above 10,000 feet MSL (excluding airspace at

or below 2,500 feet AGL).
A coded transponder with altitude reporting capability is required
for flight in all airspace of the 48 contiguous states and the
District of Columbia at and above 10,000 feet MSL and below the
floor of a Class A airspace, excluding the airspace at and below
2,500 feet AGL.

Requirements:
 Operation allowed with inoperative
instruments or equipment under
the provisions of a Minimum
Equipment List (MEL) with a letter
of authorization.
 The MEL lists the equipment that

can be inoperative and still not
affect the airworthiness of the
aircraft.
Authority for approval of a minimum equipment list (MEL)
must be obtained from the
A – Administrator.
B – FAA district office.
C – aircraft manufacturer.
An aircraft can be operated with inoperative instruments or

equipment under the provisions of a Minimum Equipment List
(MEL) if the aircraft has within it a letter of authorization, issued
by the FAA Flight Standards District Office having jurisdiction
over the area in which the operator is located, authorizing
operation of the aircraft under the Minimum Equipment List.

Requirements:
 Must use at cabin pressure
altitudes above 15,000 feet
MSL, unless each occupant
of the aircraft is provided
with supplemental oxygen.
 When operating above

12,500 feet MSL, up to and
including 14,000 feet MSL,
the flight crew must be
provided with and use
oxygen for that time that is
more than 30 minutes
duration.

Which cabin pressure altitude allows a pilot to operate an
aircraft up to 30 minutes without supplemental oxygen?
A – 12,500 feet MSL.
B – 12,600 feet MSL.
C – 14,100 feet MSL.
No person may operate a civil aircraft of U.S. Registry at cabin

pressure altitudes above 12,500 feet (MSL) up to and including
14,000 feet (MSL) unless the required minimum flight crew is
provided with and uses supplemental oxygen for that part of the
flight that is of more than 30 minutes duration at those altitudes.

Position Lights
 When operating under night VFR, the Aircraft must
have an approved aviation red or aviation white anti-
collision light system. No person may, during the
period from sunset to sunrise, operate an aircraft
unless it has lighted position lights.

Signal Color Meaning
Flashing Green Cleared for Taxi
Steady Green Cleared for takeoff
Flashing Red Taxi clear of runway in use
Steady Red Stop
Flashing White Return to starting point
Alternating Green Red Exercise extreme caution

Signal Color Meaning
Flashing Green Return for landing
Steady Green Cleared to land
Flashing Red Airport unsafe, do not land
Steady Red Give way to other aircraft
Flashing White Not applicable
Alternating Green Red Exercise extreme caution

While in flight, an alternating red and green light directed
at you from the control tower means
A – exercise extreme caution.
B – give way to other aircraft; continue circling.
C – return for landing; expect steady green light at proper
time.
An alternating red and green light signal directed at an aircraft in

flight means that the pilot should exercise extreme caution.

Requirements:
 Less than 50 mile radius of
origination airport not required;
 Batteries must be replaced (or
recharged, if the battery is
rechargeable) when the transmitter
has been in use for more than 1
cumulative hour;
 The replacement (or recharge) of
the battery must be legibly marked
on the outside of the emergency
locator transmitter and entered in
the aircraft maintenance record.
 May operate the aircraft more than
90 days after the ELT is initially
removed.

Inspection & Maintenance
 ELTs must be inspected within
12 calendar months after the
last inspection for:
 Proper installation;
 Battery corrosion;
 Operation of the controls and
crash sensor, and
 The presence of a sufficient
signal radiated from its
antenna.

When are emergency locator transmitter batteries
required to be replaced or recharged?
A – Every 24 months.
B – After 1 cumulative hour of use.
C – after 75 percent of their useful life has expired.
Batteries used in the emergency locator transmitters must be

replaced (or recharged, if the battery is rechargeable) when the
transmitter has been in use for more than 1 cumulative hour, or
when 50% of their useful life (or, for rechargeable batteries, 50%
of their useful life of charge) has expired.

Rules
 May not operate an aircraft, carrying passengers
for hire, in formation flight ;
 Aircraft, while on final approach to land, or while
landing, have the right-of-way;
 When landing, the aircraft at the lower altitude
has the right-of-way, but it shall not take
advantage of this rule to cut in front of another
that is on final approach

When aircraft are approaching each other
head-on, or nearly so, each pilot of each
aircraft shall alter course to the right.

When two or more aircraft are approaching an airport for
the purpose of landing, the right-of-way belongs to the
aircraft
A – that is the least maneuverable.
B – that is either ahead of or to the other's right

regardless of altitude.
C – at the lower altitude, but it shall not take advantage of

this rule to cut in front of or to overtake another.
Aircraft, while on final approach to land, or while landing, have

the right-of-way over other aircraft in flight or operating on the
surface. When two or more aircraft are approaching an airport for
the purpose of landing, the aircraft at the lower altitude has the
right-of-way.
Speed Limits
 Below 10,000 feet MSL
at an indicated airspeed
of more than 250 knots;
 Within 4 NM of Class C
or D airspace at an
indicated Airspeed (IAS)
of more than 200 knots;
 Underlying class B
airspace at an indicated
Airspeed (IAS) of more
than 200 knots.

The maximum indicated airspeed permitted when
operating an aircraft within 4 NM of the primary airport in
Class D airspace is
A – 200 MPH.
B – 200 knots.
C – 250 knots.
Unless otherwise authorized or required by ATC, no person may

operate an aircraft within Class C and D airspace at an Indicated
Airspeed (IAS) of more than 200 knots (230 MPH).

Limitations:
 An abrupt change in
an aircraft's attitude,
an abnormal
attitude, or
abnormal
acceleration not
necessary for
normal flight;
 Acrobatic flight not

allowed below an
altitude of 1,500 feet
above the surface,
nor when flight
visibility is less than
3 miles.

What is the minimum altitude and flight visibility required
for acrobatic flight?
A – 1,500 feet AGL and 5 miles.
B – 1,500 feet AGL and 3 miles.
C – 3,000 feet AGL and 3 miles.
No person may operate an aircraft in acrobatic flight below an

altitude of 1,500 feet AGL or when the flight visibility is less than
3 statute miles.

Congested Areas Non Congested Areas Sparsely Populated or
open water
1,000’
500’
500’

The minimum distance at which an airplane may be
operated over a structure which is located in a sparsely
populated area is
A – 500 feet above the ground.
B – 500 feet from the structure.
C – 1,000 feet from the structure.
No person shall operate an aircraft over a sparsely populated

area any closer than 500 feet to any person, vessel, vehicle, or
structure.

Planning Speed:
 The flight plan should include the cruising
altitude (or flight level) and the true airspeed
for that altitude.

What type airspeed at the planned cruise altitude should
be entered on a flight plan?
A – True airspeed.
B – Indicated airspeed.
C – Estimated groundspeed.
The flight plan should include the cruising altitude (or flight level)
and the true airspeed for that altitude.

 You must comply with any
FAA traffic pattern
established for that airport.
Pvt11,14 © 2001-2006 Stenbock Communications Inc.

What is the correct departure procedure at a
noncontrolled airport?
A – The FAA-approved departure procedure for that

airport.
B – Make all left turns, except a 45 degree right turn on

the first crosswind leg.
C – Departure in any direction consistent with safety,

after crossing the airport boundary.
Any person departing an airport without an operating control

tower shall comply with any FAA traffic pattern established for
that airport.

00 to 1790
Odd thousand
plus 500’
1800 to 3590
Even thousand
plus 500’

When operating under VFR at more than 3,000 feet AGL,
cruising altitudes to be maintained are based upon the
A – true course being flown.
B – magnetic course being flown.
C – magnetic heading being flown.
Cruising altitudes to be used when operating VFR above 3,000

feet AGL are based on the magnetic course being flown.

Limitations:
 Must have an annual inspection
each 12 calendar months;
 No inspection performed may
be substituted for an annual
inspection unless it is
performed by a person
authorized;
 For hire aircraft must have
within the preceding 100 hours
of time in service an annual or
100-hour inspection;
 Airworthiness Directive is a
regulatory notice sent out by
the FAA;

Limitations:
 The owner or operator of an aircraft
is responsible to keep that aircraft in
an airworthy condition,
 No passengers allowed in an aircraft

that has been maintained, rebuilt, or
altered in a manner that may have
appreciably changed its flight
characteristics until an
appropriately-rated pilot with at least
a Private Pilot Certificate has test
flown this aircraft;
 No transponder usage unless within

the preceding 24 calendar months it
has been tested and inspected.

An aircraft's last annual inspection was performed on
July 12, this year. The next annual inspection will be due
no later than
A – July 13, next year.
B – July 31, next year.
C – 12 calendar months after the date shown on the

Airworthiness Certificate.
No person may operate an aircraft, unless, within the preceding
12 calendar months, it has received an annual inspection in
accordance with 14 CFR Part 43 and has been approved for
return to service by a person authorized by 43.7 of the
regulations. If an annual inspection is performed on July 12, this
year, the next annual will be due no later than July 31, next year.

CFI Lesson 8 Regulations

Transféré par

Informations du document

Copyright

Formats disponibles

Partager ce document

Partager ou intégrer le document

Options de partage

Avez-vous trouvé ce document utile ?

Ce contenu est-il inapproprié ?

Droits d'auteur :

Formats disponibles

CFI Lesson 8 Regulations

Transféré par

Droits d'auteur :

Formats disponibles

COPYRIGHT NOTICE

This presentation was authored by Roger M. Stenbock CFII J.D. and

© 2001-2006 Stenbock Communications Inc.

© 2001-2006 Stenbock Communications Inc.

© 2001-2006 Stenbock Communications Inc.

© 2001-2006 Stenbock Communications Inc.

V2 means takeoff safety speed.

© 2001-2006 Stenbock Communications Inc.

© 2001-2006 Stenbock Communications Inc.

© 2001-2006 Stenbock Communications Inc.

A – adversely affects aircraft performance.

Substantial damage is defined as damage or failure which adversely

© 2001-2006 Stenbock Communications Inc.

© 2001-2006 Stenbock Communications Inc.

A – FAA-approved aircraft flight manual.

B – owner's handbook published by the aircraft

C – aircraft flight manual, approved manual

No person may operate a U.S.-registered civil aircraft for which an

 40 and older on the

© 2001-2006 Stenbock Communications Inc.

 but the certificate is valid

© 2001-2006 Stenbock Communications Inc.

 And private pilot

© 2001-2006 Stenbock Communications Inc.

A – May 3, 24 months later.

B – May 31, 24 months later.

C – May 31, 36 months later.

A Third-Class Medical Certificate expires at the end of the last day

© 2001-2006 Stenbock Communications Inc.

 Instructor must have

© 2001-2006 Stenbock Communications Inc.

 Flight instructor must endorse a

© 2001-2006 Stenbock Communications Inc.

© 2001-2006 Stenbock Communications Inc.

 The student pilot

© 2001-2006 Stenbock Communications Inc.

© 2001-2006 Stenbock Communications Inc.

 Approaches to a landing area

© 2001-2006 Stenbock Communications Inc.

B – 12 calendar months from the month in which

C – 24 calendar months from the month in which

© 2001-2006 Stenbock Communications Inc.

 Pay less than the pro-rata

 Fly an aircraft with more than 4

 Fly in airspace in which

© 2001-2006 Stenbock Communications Inc.

© 2001-2006 Stenbock Communications Inc.

 No PIC time in the

© 2001-2006 Stenbock Communications Inc.

A – airships, gliders, and balloons.

B – airplanes, gyroplanes, and helicopters.

C – airplanes, gliders, helicopters, and

A recreational pilot may not act as pilot-in-command of an aircraft

© 2001-2006 Stenbock Communications Inc.

© 2001-2006 Stenbock Communications Inc.

© 2001-2006 Stenbock Communications Inc.

 One flight must be at

© 2001-2006 Stenbock Communications Inc.

© 2001-2006 Stenbock Communications Inc.

© 2001-2006 Stenbock Communications Inc.

© 2001-2006 Stenbock Communications Inc.

To be eligible for a Commercial Pilot Certificate, a person must be at

© 2001-2006 Stenbock Communications Inc.

 Must have received flight