POLICE PHOTOGRAPHY

1. A part of a camera used in focusing the light from the

subject
A. view finder B. lens
C. shutter D. light tight box
2. Are light having wave lengths 30 to 400?
A. Ultraviolet light B. Visible light
C. X-ray D. Infrared light
3. Fish –eye lens is a special type of camera having a view
angle of:
A. 60 degrees B. 180 degrees
C. 90 degrees D. 360 degrees
4. Lens that is characterized by a thicker center and
thinner sides.
A. concave lens B. convex lens
C. negative lens D. positive lens
5. The following are the essential parts of the camera
except one…
A. Light Tight Box B. Lens
C. Tripod D. Shutter
6. These are the components of a black and white film,
except one….
A. Emulsion B. Gelatin
C. Anti halation backing D. Base
7. This film is sensitive to all colors, except red.
A. Orthochromatic film B. Panchromatic film
C. Chromatic film D. Apochromatic film
8. This is the positive result of the process of
photography.
A. Photograph B. Film
C. Cellulose D. Negative Film
9. What emulsion speed indicator is express in an arithmetic
form?
A. ISO B. DIN
C. ASA D. GNP
10. What photo paper is ideal to be used in a normal exposed
film?
A. # 1 B. # 3
C. # 2 D. # 4
11. The circular “dome-like” image –
A. curvature of field B. spherical aberration
C. chromatic aberration D. coma
12. Otherwise known as the coherent light.
A. Infrared light B. Laser light
C. Visible light D. Ultraviolet light
13. When was the birth year of photography?
A. 1939 B. 1839
C. 1793 D. 1893
14. A type of film that is sensitive to all colors.
A. Infrared film B. Orthochromatic film
C. Panchromatic film D. Chromatic film
15. A systematic arrangement of colors to give a pleasant
effect.
A. color perception B. color sensitivity
C. color accuracy D. color harmony
16. This type of camera will eliminate parallax error.
A. Single Lens Reflex B. Twin Lens Reflex
C. View finder type D. View or press
camera
17. What country is the first who use photograph of crime
scene in court presentation?
A. Germany B. US
C. Philippines D. France
18. A lens with a focal length of less than the diagonal of its
negative material.
A. telephoto lens B. long lens
C. normal lens D. wide angle lens
19. If a camera lens has a fixed focal length of 50mm. such
lens is classified:
A. Focusing Lens B. Normal Lens
20. In crime scene photography, what view tends to show the
extent damage on the subject?
A. General View B. Medium View
C. Close-up shot D. Extreme Close-up shot
21. It is a lighting condition where object in open space cost a
deep and uniform or distinct shadow.
A. Bright sunlight B. Hazy sunlight
C. Dull sunlight D. Cloudy dull
22. The appearance of the original will come out and such result
is known as the?
A. Film B. Negative
C. Photograph D. Picture
23. The bending of light around an object gives rise to the
phenomenon called
A. Attraction B. Diffraction
C. Light Curve D. Light fingerprint
24. The simplest camera is a ___, which consists of a box with
a small hole in one of its sides.
A. Camera obscura B. Fixed focus camera
C. Pinhole camera D. Nikkon camera
25. This means by which the object distance is estimated or
calculated to from sharp images
A. Angle of View B. Depth of Focus
C. Focus D. Focal Length
26. This type of camera will eliminate the parallax error and it
will work well with all lenses.
A. Twin reflex type B. View or press camera type
C. View finder type D. Single lens reflex type
27. What is considered as the utmost used of photography in
police work?
A. For identification B. For preservation
C. For record purpose D. For court presentation
28. What is that process of eliminating unwanted portions of a
negative during enlarging process?
A. Dodging B. Burning-In
C. Vignetting D. Cropping
29. What kind of diaphragm opening should a photographer used
in order to get a wider depth of field?
A. wider B. shorter
C. smaller D. Longer
30. What type of a camera is ideal to police photography?
A. View Finder Type B. Single Lens Reflex
C. Twin Lens Reflex D. Press/View Camera
31. While the exposed film is not yet developed, the image
recorder is technical referred to as:
A. Inverted image B. Negative image
C. Latent image D. Positive image
32. A lens defect that can affect resolution and clarity, making it
hard to obtain sharp images.
A. curvature of field B. spherical aberration
C. chromatic aberration D. coma
33. One the part of the film holder of the camera that usually
houses the film cartridge.
A. sprocket B. locking catch
C. guide roller D. cavity
34. Refers to the process of taking pictures with the use of
microscope.
A. Photomacrography B. Macrophotography
C. Microphotography D. Photomicrography
35. It refers to the lens which forms a real image on the opposite
side of the lens.
A. Concave B. Positive
C. Convex D. Negative
36. What is referred to the effective length of time a camera’s
shutter is open?
A. Diaphragm opening B. Shutter
C. Shutter speed D. Emulsion speed
37. This is attach to the shutter to prevent accidental movement
of the camera during the exposure period.
A. Tripod B. Cable release
C. Light meter D. Extinction meter
38. It is used in chemical analysis and in curing and hardening
of different items for industrial purposes.
A. long wave UV B. medium wave UV
C. short wave UV D. ultraviolet rays
39. Refers to the range of illumination or the light allowed to
affect the sensitized material at a given time.
A. Exposure B. Aperture
C. Shutter D. Shutter speed
40. The distance between the nearest and the farthest object in
apparent sharp focus when the lens is focused at a given point.
A. Angle of view B. Focal Length
C. Depth of Field D. Focus
41. The science or art of obtaining images in scientific materials
by the action of electro magnetic radiation rays.
A. Polygraphy B. Dactyloscopy
C. Photography D. Chemistry
42. The study of the fundamentals of photography, its
application to police work and the preparation of photographic
evidence:
A. Cinematography B. Photograph
C. Forensic photography D. Photography
43. This part of a camera is used to allow light to enter through
the lens for a predetermined time interval.
A. shutter B. holder of sensitized
material
C. view finder D. lens
44. Which of the following supports the entire unit of the
enlarger, which usually holds the easel that carries the
photographic paper?
A. Focusing mechanism B. Baseboard
C. Condenser lenses D. Elevating control knob
45. In the additive color mixture process combining the color
blue and green will produce cyan. What is the complementary
color of blue?
A. yellow B. cyan
C. magenta D. Green
46. It is the ability of an object to convert one wavelength to
another as long as the active energy source is irradiating the
object.
A. Fluorescence B. Phosphorescence
C. Luminescence D. Interference
47. Objects that allow sufficient visible light to pass through
them that the object on the other side may be clearly seen.
A. Transparent B. Translucent
C. Opaque D. Filter
48. Its actions starts from one side and closes on the
opposite side with amore faster shutter speed. The
statement is referring to:
A. central shutter B. leaf shutter
C. focal plane shutter D. between the lens
shutter
49. William Fox Talbot invented what particular object
which uses a paper impregnated with light sensitive
compounds.
A. Calotype B. wet plate
C. Daguerreotype D. Camera Obscura
50. These are made of plastic material support the
emulsion layer, it is particularly known as the base
which can be found on the:
A. base B. film
C. anti-halation backing D. gray
1. A British scientist who made the first miniature cameras, the
so-called “mouse trap” cameras.
A. Joseph Nicephore Niepce B. Louis Jacques Mande
Daguerre
C. Willian Henry Fox Talbot D. Sir John Herschel
2. The result of his work was, images were fragile to the touch
and needed to be protected under glass, but were capable of
recording the finest detail.
A. Joseph Nicephore Niepce B. Sir John Herschel
C. Louis Jacques Mande DaguerreD. Willian Henry Fox
Talbot
3. The word Photography was coined by _____?
A. John F. W. Herschel B. Louis Jacques Mande
Daguerre
C. Henry Fox Talbot D. Leonardo Da Vinci
4. A distance at which lens of a camera is focused with a given
particular diaphragm opening which will give the maximum
depth of field is-
A. Focal distance B. subject distances
C. hyper focal distance D. focal length
5. A type of a lens that would make an object to be exaggeratedly
closes to the photographer and is ideal in stake out surveillance
photography.
A. Short Focus Lens B. Telephoto Lens
C. Normal Focus Lens D. Wide Angle Lens
6. In addition to legal medicine, as prober, how can you preserve
perishable evidence like injuries, contusions, hematoma, etc?
A. Recording B. Sketching
C. Photography D. Listing
7. In crime scene photography, what view tends to show the four
angles of the possible entrance and exit point of the suspect?
A. General View B. Medium View
C. Close-up shot D. Extreme Close-up
shot
8. In photography, what determines how effectively a moving
object can be stopped, that is, how sharply it can be reproduced
without blurring, or streaking in the final image?
A. Focus B. Shutter speed
C. Aperture D. Lens
9. Is that part of the camera which controls the passage of light
reaching the sensitized material? It compared to the eyelid of the
human eye.
A. Lens B. Shutter
C. Lens Opening D. Film Plane
10. It enables the law enforcement investigator to record the
visible and in many cases, the invisible evidence found at the
crime scene.
A. Photography B. Police photography
C. Photographic Evidence D. Photograph
11. It is the range in front of and behind a sharply
focused subject in which details also look sharp in the final
photographic image.
A. Focus B. Depth of field
C. Camera trick D. Aperture
12. Lens aberration in which light of different wavelength is
focused at different distances behind the lens. It can be corrected
by combining different types of glass lens.
A. astigmatism B. chromatic aberration
C. spherical aberration D. coma
13. Light rays from the subject on the lens axis passing through off-
center areas of the lens focus at different distances from the light rays
that pass directly through the center of the lens.
A. astigmatism B. chromatic aberration
C. spherical aberration D. coma
14. One of the recent advancements of photography is in the use of
laser. With laser, one is able to produce a three dimensional
photograph called:
A. Ektogram B. Monogram
C. Photogram D. Hologram
15. The changes in direction of light are conclusive whenever light
process from one medium to another. This is known as the
phenomenon of refraction.
A. reflection B. Diffraction
C. Transparent D. Refraction
16. The process of obtaining a magnified photograph of a small object
without the use of a microscope, by using a short focus lens and a long
bellow extension.
A. macrophotography B. microphotography
C. photomicrography D. photomicrography
17. The science of obtaining photographic magnification of minute
objects by using a camera attached to a compound microscope. The
camera lens is removed because the microscope because the
microscope form the image.
A. macrophotography B. microphotography
C. photomicrography D. photomicrography
18. The science which deals with the study of the principles of
photography, the preparation of photographic evidence and its
application to police work.
A. Forensic Photography B. Police Photography
C. Photography D. Photograph
19. What is the range of distance from the nearest object to the farthest
object that is sharp when the lens is set or focused at a particular
distance?
A. Local length B. Depth of field
C. Hyperfocal distance D. Focusing
20. All practical lens images such as point a small blur which changes
in character with the change of lens aperture. The statement best
describe:
A. Diaphragm as a controller of depth of field
B. Diaphragm as a controller of speed
C. Diaphragm as a controller of definition
D. Aperture
21. The highest the number is the smallest the opening or the one that
gives the least amount of light. The statement best describe:
A. Diaphragm as a controller of depth of field
B. Diaphragm as a controller of speed
C. Diaphragm as a controller of definition
D. aperture
22. The person that first advocate the use of the photography for the
identification of criminals and the documentation of evidences and
crime scene.
A. Baltazard B. Herschel
C. Odelbercht D. Maddox
23. It is known as the fundamental characteristics of a lens that will
determine the size of an image and area of coverage of the lens. The
statement is referring to:
A. aperture B. focal length
C. lens mechanism D. shutter
24. In photography using microprism, the image on focus will usually
shatter of an out of focus image and when it is exactly in focus the
prisms seems to disappear. These microprisms are primarily found on:
A. lens B. filter
C. viewfinder D. groundglass
25. A type of camera in which the lens and shutter mounted to
body by means of an accordion-pleated bellows, which can be
folded into camera foe ease of carrying.
A. accordion camera B. folding camera
C. bellowed camera D. SLR
26. The part of the DSLR that converts the light into electrical
signal as the start of forming digital images.
A. charged-coupled device B. digital signal
processor
C. analogue-to-digital converter D. Central processing
unit
27. This results in star images near the outer edge of the viewing
field seeming to have comet-style tails scattering radially away
from its optical axis.
A. coma B. positive coma
C. aberration D. negative coma
28. It is caused by lens dispersion, with different colors of light
travelling at different speeds while passing through a lens.
A. curvature of field B. spherical aberration
C. chromatic aberration D. coma
29. This results in star images near the outer edge of the viewing
field seeming to have comet-style tails scattering radially towards
its optical axis.
A. coma B. positive coma
C. aberration D. negative coma
30. A device made of thin overlapping metal leaves within a lens
or camera which can be adjusted to specific apertures of f-stops
to control the amount of light that strikes the film.
A. shutter B. diaphragm
C. aperture D. diaphragm opening
31. It is believed that the word lens was derived from the Latin
name of the lentil, because a double-convex lens is lentil-shaped.
In fact the most eaten specie of the of this plant is –
A. lentil B. lens
C. lens culinaris D. lens polinaris
32. This effect causes images to be spherized, which means the
edges of images look curved and bowed to the human eye.
A. pincushion distortion B. spherical aberration
C. barrel distortion D. wavy field curvature
33. A camera that uses lens and spring-loading shutter and roll
film. Shutter speed and aperture usually not adjustable.
A. accordion camera B. folding camera
C. bellowed camera D. box camera
34. The absence of all colors is black; white light is composed of
the three primary colors – blue, green and red. What is the sum
total of all colors of the rainbow?
A. Visible light B. Light
C. White light D. Rays
35. To have a more sharp image flash exposure is encouraged
and it can be computed. What if the guide number is 220 in a
distance of 10 ft what will be the exact aperture?
A. f11 B. f22
C. f5.6 D. f8
36. Modern photographic papers are basically composed of a
light sensitive coating on a paper base which particularly
suspended on what substance?
A. emulsion B. silver halides
C. bromide D. gelatin
37. In 1947 Edwin H. Land introduced the one step photography also
known as polariod. What will be produce by LASER?
A. Polaroid B. Holograms
C. Digital Camera D. DSLR
38. What will be the lighting condition if you are going to take a
photograph using a film speed of ISO 200 and a shutter speed of 1/250
with an aperture of f8?
A. bright B. hazy
C. dull D. open light
1. Nardo B. Hart was on to a special photography using a film that was
sensitive to UV radiation and primary colors. Mr. Hart was using what
type of film?
A. Panchromatic film B. Blue sensitive film
C. Ultra violet film D. orthochromatic film
2. The photographer in crime scene investigation has to get as many
photographs as he can. The first shot that he should make just after
reaching the crime scene is the house where the crime of murder was
committed to one of its ten rooms. In getting the façade of the house,
what lens should he utilize?
A. telephoto lens B. macro lens
C. normal lens D. wide angel lens
3. When photographing the corpse in the scene, several pictures of the
conditions at the time of discovery including the environment of the
corpse must be taken from various photographic directions in order to:
A. Show whether there is any evidence of struggle and try to
show what happen inside prior to the crime
B. Show when photographing the general conditions as being
deformed as a whole, photograph the damage parts and
consider the range partly clearly
C. Take close-up shots on the damaged area in two angles from
distance of 8 to 10 feet
D. Photographs general view of the building, look into windows,
and pathway
4. A black and white films posses several characteristics such as speed,
spectral and granularity. The speed will be referring to the sensitivity of the film
to light, granularity is the graininess and the spectral is the sensitivity to:
A. spectrum B. wavelength
C. electromagnetic energy D. all of these
5. In outdoor photography, there will some instance that the presence of light is
too much that produces a dilemma to the photographer. What do you think is
the best way to do?
A. find another subject
B. use a much smaller lens opening
C. use a flash unitD. move the subject into a well lighted position
6. Carlo S. Bart was taking up a snap shot and expecting it to sharp
but an alteration happened to the expected image because it was seen
in two view points. What is that phenomenon?
A. out of focus B. underexposure
C. parallax D. split image
7. PO3 Revon with his team conducted a thorough stakeout of a certain
building in Quirante II. In order to document all the movements of their
subjects, they have apply the principles of photography with the aid of
what particular lens mechanism?
A. wide angle lens B. zoom lens
C. telephoto lens D. fish eye lens
8. In the modernization of the photography, DSLR camera almost
dominated the market because of its great features that are very useful
in commercial photo shoots. What do DSLR means?
A. Double system reflex camera B. Dual Single reflex
camera
C. Digital System reflex camera D. Digital Single reflex
camera
9. It is the timing of the camera shutter and the flash so that when the shutter
is fully opened, that’s the time that the flash will yield its highest peaks of
illumination. The statement is referring to:
A. bounce flash B. synx
C. on camera flash D. synchronization
PERSONAL IDENTIFICATION

1. A part of the whorl or loop in which appear the cores,

deltas and ridges.
A. type line B. bifurcation
C. pattern area D. furrow
2. How many standard fingerprint patterns are there?
A. Three B. Eight
C. Two D. Nine
3. If the number of interesting lines had been three then
this would have been?
A. Inner tracing B. Outer tracing
C. Ring inner tracing D. Meet tracing
4. In Dactyloscopy, if we say a person with polydactyl hand
he has?
A. Extra hand B. Extra finger
C. Extra Nails D. Extra Hair
5. The core and delta are also termed as _____?
A. Inner Terminus B. Outer Terminus
C. Focal Point D. Pattern Area
6. The forking or dividing of one line to two or more branches.
A. ridge B. island
C. delta D. bifurcation
7. This is a canal like impression or depression found between
the ridges.
A. Friction skin B. Ridge surface
C. Ridges D. Furrows
8. This refers to the study of fingerprints for the purpose of
identification.
A. Dactyloscopy B. Dactylography
C. Podoscopy D. Poroscopy
9. What is the science of palm print identification?
A. Chiroscopy B. Poroscopy
C. Podoscopy D. Astrology
10. A 32 over 32 would indicate all _________ patterns in primary
classification.
A. whorl B. loop
C. tented arch D. radial
11. A forensic chemist is tasked to examine the chemical nature
and composition of the following except one:
A. fingerprint B. explosives
C. blood D. body fluids
12. A Dogmatic Principle which postulates that the fingerprint
cannot be forged.
A. Principle of individuality B. Principle of
constancy/permanency
C. Principle of infallibility D. All of these
13. A fingerprint pattern in which the ridges form a sequence of
spirals around core axes.
A. whorl B. double loop
C. central pocket loop D. accidental
14. A kind of fingerprint which is found on soft and sticky objects such
as wax and tape?
A. Visible print B. Semi-visible print
C. Invisible print D. All of these
15. Fingerprints left on various surfaces at the crime scene which are
not clearly visible.
A. Plane impressions B. Visible fingerprints
C. Rolled impressions D. Latent fingerprints
16. In an accidental whorl type of pattern, what pattern is
not included in the combination?
A. Ulnar Loop B. Plain Whorl
C. Tented Arch D. Plain Arch
17. In the distribution of percentage in the fingerprint
pattern, 35% is being represented by what group?
A. Loop B. Whorl
C. Arch D. Radial Loop
18. Is that appears as tiny black line with white dots (called
pores) in an inked finger impression?
A. sweat pores B. furrows
C. ridges D. sweat duct
19. It refers to all fingerprints left at the crime scene
including those left accidentally or unconsciously.
A. Chance Impressions B. Latent Prints
C. Smudge Prints D. Fragmentary
Prints
20. The innermost ridges run parallel and surrounded to the
pattern area are known as _______.
A. type lines B. criss-crossing ridges
C. long ridges D. ridgeology
21. These are depressions or canals between the ridges of a
fingerprint which maybe compared with the low area in a tire
tread.
A. None of these B. Envelope
C. Furrows D. Bifurcation
22. What are the depressed portions or canal structure of the
friction skin found between ridges?
A. Pores B. Indentions
C. Furrows D. Duct
23. What are those that are sometimes referred to as papillary or
epidermal ridges?
A. Latent ridges B. Dermal ridges
C. Friction ridges D. Fingerprints
24. What fingers are rolled towards the body in taking a rolled
impression?
A. both little finger B. both thumb finger
C. all finger except thumb D. both index finger
25. What is the type of a pattern in which the looping or
slanting ridges flows towards the little finger?
A. Loop B. Radial Loop
C. Ulnar Loop D. Tented Arch
26. What type of a pattern possesses an angle, an upthrust,
or two of the three basic characteristics of the loop?
A. Plain Arch B. Tented Arch
C. Accidental Whorl D. Ulnar Loop
27. When a ridge bifurcates, sending two ridges across the
imaginary line, how is it counted?
A. One B. Two
C. Three D. Six
28. Located along the undersides of the fingers, palms,
toes, and soles appear corrugated skin structure known to
the biologist as
A. friction skin B. handprints
C. fingerprints D. volar skin
29. Located along the undersides of the fingers, palms, toes, and
soles appear corrugated skin structure known to the fingerprint
examiner as
A. friction skin B. handprints
C. fingerprints D. volar skin
30. In 1905, the Stratton brothers was convicted after they were
charged of murdering Farrow couple. This accomplishment was a
work of?
A. Henry B. Vecetich
C. Faulds D. Herschel
31. He first used fingerprints on native contracts in Hooghly
district in Jungipoor, India.
A. John Evangelist Purkinje B. Dr. Henry Faulds
C. Marcello Malpighi D. Sir William Herschel
32. It is said that the fingerprints of a person will be carried from
womb to tomb. What principle greatly described the phrase?
A. the principle of individuality B. principle of
permanency
C. principle of infallibility D. all of these
33. Who used surgery to destroy his friction ridges and was
known as the Man without fingerprint.
A. Robert James Pitts B. Roscoe Pitts
C. John Dillenger D. John Augustus
34. The first conviction in the Philippine Case which gives
recognition to the science of fingerprint?
A. People Vs. Medina B. People Vs. Jennings
C. Miranda Vs. Arizona D. West Case
35. He is known as the Father of Fingerprint Examination.
A. Johannes Evangelist Purkinje B. Alphonse
Bertillion
C. Calvin Goddard D. Hans Gross
36. Ridge forms in the person’s fingers and feet during its
infants stage which usually starts:
A. 3rd to 4th months of the fetus life
B. 4th to 5th months of the fetus life
C. 5th to 6th months of the fetus life
D. 5th to 6th months after birth
37. The following are considerations used for the identification of a loop
except one:
A. a delta B. a core
C. a sufficient recurve D. a ridge count across a looping bridge
38. What is the rule when there is a choice between a bifurcation and
other type of delta found in the fingerprint?
A. Bifurcation is selected
B. the other type of delta is selected
C. Bifurcation is disregarded
D. the one towards the core is selected
39. Which of the following is not true about the value or the importance
of fingerprinting?
A. Serve to provide evidence
B. prevent criminal substitution
C. help identify victims of calamities like crime
D. speedily identifying the perpetrator
40. It is placed just to the left of the primary in the classification
formula. Where whorls appear in the thumbs following the whorl
tracings subsecondary classification.
A. subsecondary B. major division
C. key D. final
41. What type of pattern in which it could be found on the
lower box of the fingerprint card having a delta and core
with a recurving ridge flowing towards the no. 6 finger?
A. Ulnar loop B. Radial loop
C. Loop D. arches
42. Which of the following best describes a loop pattern?
A. presence of 1 sufficient recurving ridge
B. has a bifurcation as the delta
C. 1 core at the point of divergence
D. all of these
43. All but one, are the elements of a whorl pattern?
A. Usually possessing a circular formation at the
center
B. Several patterns may be present
C. It may bear 2 or more deltas
D. none of these
44. These kind of ridge characteristic is sometimes being
misinterpreted as a bifurcation because of its close resemblance
to it. This ridge is known as:
A. trifurcation B. enclosure
C. island D. converging ridge
45. What is that portion of the fingerprint bounded by the type
lines where the characteristics needed for
interpretation/classification is found?
A. Loops B. Ridges
C. Double lines D. Pattern area
46. The right and left little fingers are used exclusively for the
Final Classification. However, they are also considered in what
classification?
A. Primary B. Sub-secondary
C. Secondary D. Final
47. These are tiny portions or is a hill-like structure found on the
epidermis of friction skin containing sweat, with pores appearing
as black likes in a fingerprint impression.
A. Imaginary lines B. Black lines
C. Furrows D. Ridges
48. The principle in fingerprint study that states that
fingerprint cannot be forged. Fingerprint is a reliable and a
positive means of identification.
A. principle of infallibility B. principle of
permanency
C. principle of individuality D. principle of
constancy
49. The following are the requisites of a loop except one,
A. It must have a core
B. It must have a complete circuit
C. It must have a delta
D. It must have a ridge count of at least one
50. In fingerprinting, it refers to the process of counting the
intervening ridges that touch or cross an imaginary line
drawn between the core and the delta.
A. Ridge counting B. Ridge tracing
C. Delta tracing D. All of these
FORENSIC BALLISTICS

1. A type of primer with two vents or flash holes.

A. Bordan primer B. Berdan Primer
C. Battery Primer D. Boxer Primer
2. Fired Cartridge case/shell are usually mark at the
_________?
A. At the base B. Side or body of the shell
C. At the rim D. Any of these
3. Is that part of a firearm which houses all the other parts.
A. Housing B. frame
C. casing D. Chamber
4. It is the measurement of the bore diameter from land to
land.
A. Calibre B. Mean diameter
C. Gauge D. Rifling
5. It is the science of mobility of the projectile.
A. Forensic Ballistics B. Applied Physics
C. Ballistics D. Applied Science
6. The caliber of the smoothbore firearm case measure
by?
A. Gauge B. Caliber
C. Lands of grooves D. None of these
7. The pattern or curved path of the bullet in flight.
A. Yaw B. Range
C. Velocity D. Trajectory
8. What initiates the combustion of the gunpowder in a
shell?
A. Bullet B. Trigger
C. Primer D. Flash Hole
9. What instrument is used in obtaining test bullet?
A. Caliper B. Bullet
Comparison Microscope
C. Bullet Recovery Box D. Water Tank
10. What type of a firearm is commonly used by
cavalry?
A. Carbine B. Pistol
C. Revolver D. Rifle
11. It is a branch of ballistics that treats of the motion
of a projectile while still inside the firearm.
A. interior ballistics B. terminal ballistics
C. exterior ballistics D. forensic ballistics
12. It refers to the size of the bullet groupings on the
target.
A. terminal penetration B. terminal velocity
C. terminal energy D. terminal accuracy
13. Which refers to the size of the bullet grouping on the target?
A. Penetration B. Terminal penetration
C. Terminal ballistics D. Terminal accuracy
14. A metal rod or plate that strikes the cartridge primer to
detonate the powder.
A. Spring B. Trigger guard
C. Hammer D. Revolver
15. A device that fits over the muzzle of the barrel to muffle the
sound of a gunshot. Most work by baffling the escape of gases.
A. Buffer B. Silencer
C. Magazine D. Hanger
16. A hand gun in which a rotating cylinder successively places
cartridge into position for firing is known as?
A. Pistol B. Revolver
C. Rifle D. Machinegun
17. A type of a bullet designed to be fired at night which emits a
bright flame at its base and usually colored red-tip.
A. armor piercing B. tracer bullet
C. incendiary bullet D. explosive
18. A type of a firearm which propels a number of lead
pellets in one charge to a smooth bore barrel.
A. Rifle B. Machinegun
C. Shotgun D. Musket
19. Generally applied to all homemade gun, just as the one
used by juvenile delinquent in United States.
A. zip gun B. freakish gun
C. grease gun D. paltik
20. In the story of crime, with the use of firearm, the energy
coming from the muzzle point is called?
A. Armor-piercing B. Velocity
C. Lead bullet D. Muzzle energy
21. Is a complete unfired unit consisting of bullet, primer,
gun powder and shell:
A. Ammunition B. Shotgun Cartridge
C. Cartridge D. Missile
22. Is that branch of ballistics which treats the motion of
the projectile while it is in its flight?
A. Interior B. Terminal
C. Exterior D. Forensic
23. Is the rate of speed of the bullet per unit of time,
expressed in ft/sec?
A. Muzzle Energy B. Muzzle Blast
C. Velocity D. Trajectory
24. It is the distance at which the gunner has the control of
shot where the bullet travel straight.
A. Maximum Range B. Maximum Effective
Range
C. Accurate Range D. Effective Range
25. It refers to the characteristics of a firearm which are
determinable even before the manufacture of the firearm?
A. Class Characteristics B. Individual
Characteristics
C. Repetitive mark D. accidental mark
26. That mechanism in a firearm by which the cartridge
case or shell is withdrawn from the chamber.
A. Extractor B. Chamber
C. Firing pin D. Barrel
27. The mechanism of a firearm which withdraws the
empty shells from the chamber?
A. Ejector B. Extractor
C. Firing pin D. Extractor pin
28. The moment the bullet leaves the muzzle of the gun.
What kind of ballistic?
A. Interior Ballistics B. Exterior Ballistics
C. Terminal Ballistics D. Ballistics
29. The part of the mechanism of a firearm that withdraws
the shell or cartridge from the chamber.
A. Extractor B. Ejector
C. Striker D. Trigger
30. The science dealing with the motion of a projectile and
the conditions governing that motion.
A. Ballistics B. Forensic Ballistics
C. Terminal Ballistics D. External Ballistics

31. The study of the effect of the impact of a projectile on

the target.
A. Terminal Ballistics B. Internal Ballistics
C. External Ballistics D. Forensic Ballistics

32. This is the actual curved path of the bullet during its
flight from the gun muzzle and target.
A. Air Resistance B. Velocity
C. Trajectory D. Pull of Gravity
33. This refers to the deflection of the bullet from its normal
path after striking a resistant surface.
A. Misfire B. Mushroom
C. Ricochet D. Key hole shot
34. This refers to the helical grooves cut in the interior
surface of the bore.
A. swaging B. ogive
C. rifling D. breaching
35. What do you call the type of instrument used in
measuring pitch of rifling firearms?
A. Pinometer B. Helixometer
C. Thermometer D. Caliper
36. What instrument is used in measuring the pitch of
rifling of a firearm?
A. Calipher B. Tortion Balance
C. Helixometer D. Chronograph
37. What occurs when a cartridge fails to explode on time
or delayed in firing?
A. Knocking Power B. Hang fire
C. Recoil D. None of these
38. What type of a firearm propels a projectile with more
than one inch diameter?
A. Small Arms B. Artillery
C. Mortar D. Cannon
39. Which of the following test is used to determine whether
a person fired a gun?
A. Luminescence B. Duquinois Levine test
C. Takayama’s test D. Paraffin test
40. The term ballistics was actually derived from the Greek
word “ballein or ballo”, which means
A. to kick B. to punch
C. to throw D. to explode
41. It is the sound created at the muzzle end of the gun
barrel after explosion.
A. muzzle energy B. range
C. trajectory D. muzzle blast
42. The greatest distance a projectile can travel when fired
at the optimum angle of elevation of the barrel.
A. maximum range B. maximum effective range
C. minimum range D. minimum effective range
43. The Morse cartridge in 1858 marked the beginning of
the rapid development of the
A. pin-fire cartridge B. center-fire cartridge
C. rimfire cartridge D. none of these
44. It refers to one complete unfired unit consisting of a
bullet, primer, cartridge case, and gunpowder
A. projectile B. cartridge
C. firearm D. slug
45. Characteristics which are determinable only after the
manufacture of the firearm.
A. class characteristics B. forensic characteristics
C. rifling characteristics D. Individual characteristics
46. The most important single process in a barrel manufacture from
the standpoint of the identification expert is:
A. reaming operation B. rifling operation
C. lapping operation D. drilling operation
47. The curved path of a bullet is mainly caused by several factors.
What do you call the manner of curving of the bullet?
A. Trajectory B. Drift
c. Terminal Ballistic D. All of these
48. The motion responsible for the bouncing of the bullet in different
direction after hitting a much harder object known as ricochet.
A. direct motion B. rotary motion
C. translational motion D. ricochet motion
49. What should be the classification of a shell when the diameter
of the rim is larger than the diameter of the shell’s body?
A. Bottleneck type B. Rimless case
C. Rebated type D. Rimmed case
50. Handguns that can be fired several times by means of cartridge
stored in the handle are called.
A. Pistols B. Revolver
C. Self-loading pistol D. Automatic Weapon
QUESTIONED DOCUMENTS
1. A fluid or viscous marking material used for writing
or printing.
A. Pen B. Ink
C. Coal D. Chalk
2. Any stroke which goes back over another writing
stroke.
A. natural variation B. rhythm
C. retracing D. shading
3. It is where handwriting rest?
A. Stroke B. Vase
C. Base D. Rhythm
4. Majority of questioned document cases are
concerned with _________?
A. Documents Age B. Disproving Alibis
C. Proving Authorship D. Counterfeiting
5. Questioned document examination is known by
many names except one:
A. Forensic document examination
B. Document classification
C. Handwriting examination
D. Handwriting analysis
6. The art of beautiful writing is known as
A. Drafting B. Calligraphy
C. Art appreciation D. Gothic
7. The following are characteristics of forgery except one:
A. Presence of Natural Variation B. Multiple Pen
Lifts
C. Show bad quality of ink lines D. Patchwork
Appearance
8. What is the Latin word for “paper”
A. cartouche B. penna
C. charta D. papyrus
9. Which of the following is the primary determinant of writing
speed?
A. Indicates speed writing B. Natural writing
C. Rhythm D. The written strokes
10. Questioned document examination is known by many
names except one:
A. Document classification B. Handwriting
examination
C. Handwriting analysis D. Forensic document
examination
11. A document in which some issues have been raised or is
under scrutiny.
A. Void Document B. Illegal Document
C. Forged Document D. Questioned
Document
12. A document which contains some changes either as an
addition or deletion.
A. Inserted document B. altered document
C. disputed document D. obliterated document
13. A genuine signature used to prepare an imitated or
traced forgery is known as
A. Evidential Signature B. Forged Signature
C. Model signature D. Repeated Signature
14. A kind of erasure by using a rubber eraser, sharp knife,
razor blade or picking instrument.
A. mechanical erasure B. electronic erasure
C. magnetic erasure D. chemical erasure
15. An interruption in a stroke caused by removing the
writing instrument from the paper is described as:
A. Pen emphasis B. Pen pressure
C. Pen lifts D. Pen scope
16. Any written instrument by which a right or obligation is
established.
A. certificate B. subpoena
C. warrant D. document
17. A person who can write either with his left or right hand is
called–
A. Ambidextrous B. Analogous
C. Bicephalous D. Dextrous or
Dexterous
18. It is the periodic increase in pressure, characterized by
widening of the ink stroke.
A. Shading B. pen lift
C. pen emphasis D. pen pressure
19. This are usually the result from contact with the other
writings.
A. Folds and Creases B. Blots
C. Perforation D. Smears
20. Specimens of hand writing or of typescript which is of known origin.
A. letters B. Samples
C. exemplars D. Documents
21. The name of a person written by him/her in a document as a sign
of acknowledgement.
A. Opinion B. Document
C. Signature D. Handwriting
22. The process of making out what is illegible or what has
been effaced.
A. Comparison B. Collation
C. Obliteration D. Decipherment
23. There is freehand invitation and is considered as the
most skilful class of forgery
A. simple forgery B. simulated or copied
forgery
C. traced forgery D. carbon tracing
24. The retouching of a defective portion of a written stroke
is known in questions document examination as –
A. Feathering B. Shading
C. Retracing D. Patching
25. This is done by rubbing off with rubber or scrapping off
with sharp instrument.
A. Mechanical erasure B. Chemical solution
C. Biological erasure D. Mechanical solution
26. Writing characterized by too much freedom of movement and
lack of regulation which is usually tall letters.
A. Loss writing B. Restrained writing
C. Genuine writing D. Regulated writing
27. This typewriter defect is brought about by clogged typefaces,
poor condition or worn-out or torn ribbon.
A. transitory typeface defect B. permanent typeface
defect
C. vertical mal alignment D. tilted/twisted
characters
28. All but one are the principles on choosing the best
standards for comparison.
A. in same general class B. the genuineness was
already proven
C. it is contemporeanous D. accepted by the law
as standard
29. Refers to the design of letters which are fundamental to a
writing system.
A. Copy book form B. Line quality
C. System of writing D. Writing movement
30. This handwriting movement is usually indicated by
regularity of lines and considerable speed.
A. finger movement B. wrist movement
C. forearm movement D. whole arm
movement
31. This movement may be categorized into hesitating and
painful due to weakness and illness.
A. tremors B. wrist movement
C. quality of movement D. whole arm
movement
32. These are devised for obscuring forger’s intention to hide
rather than a manifestation of the careless use of a pen.
A. Folds and Creases B. Blots
C. Perforation D. Smears
33. There are only three prominent letters in the alphabet that
bears this kind of characteristics.
A. pen jump B. retrace
C. diacritics D. all of them
34. A document becomes questioned documents when
_____ or alterations, this usually affect the original meaning
of a document.
A. Forge B. Fraudulent
C. Changes D. Signature
35. A document becomes questioned documents when
_____ or alterations, this usually affect the original meaning
of a document.
A. Forge B. Fraudule
C. Changes D. Signature
36. A kind of document executed by a person in authority and by
private parties but notarized by competent officials.
A. private document B. Commercial document
C. public document D. Official document
37. An ink that is made by grinding carbon in the form of
vegetable char with varnish made of natural gums and drying
oils.
A. Record ink B. Liquid-lead pencil ink
C. Stamp-pad inks D. Printing ink
38. An instrument that can be legally used in comparison with a
questioned document, its origin is known and can be proven.
A. simulated document B. forged document
C. standard document D. compared document
39. How do you call the average force with which the pen
contacts the paper and may be estimated from an examination of
the writing?
A. pen lift B. pen pressure
C. pen emphasis D. pen nibs
40. If a document is disputed by one or more persons because of
the materials used in their production, then such document is
considered?
A. Questioned Document B. Holographic
Documents
C. Disputed Documents D. Falsified Document
41. If ballpoint was patented by John Loud who patented the
first practical fountain pen containing its own ink reservoir?
A. William Mitchel B. Lewis Waterman
C. Swamp Reed D. Dr. WlsonHarison
42. Legally speaking, what is the description of the act of
passing, delivering, or giving a counterfeit coin to another
person?
A. Counterfeiting B. Falsification
C. Reproduction D. Uttering
43. Questioned document examination often involves comparing
questioned handwriting with known handwriting to determine?
A. authentic document B. the falsification committed
C. the writer's identity D. any sign of forgery
44. Refers to the usual or normal deviations found in a repeated
specimen of individual’s handwriting.
A. Natural variation B. Transitory change
C. Permanent damage D. Temporary defect
45. Standards which are prepared upon the request of the
investigator and for the purpose of comparison with the
questioned document.
A. relative standards B. collected standards
C. extended standards D. requested standards
46. Which of these refers to the art of determining the character or
disposition of person by analyzing his handwriting?
A. Calligraphy B. Graphology
C. Haplography D. QD Examination
47. Which of the following is considered the earliest material that served
the purpose of paper during the ancient times?
A. Cellulose from wood pulp B. Vegetable fiber
C. Papyrus D. Parchment
48. A document which is being questioned because of its origin, its
contents or the circumstances or the stories of its production.
A. disputed document B. standard document
C. requested document D. questioned document
49. The three general areas of examination in questioned typewriting except
one…
A. Size and spacing B. Type style
C. Style spacing D. Unique identifying characteristics
50. Two handwritings cannot be deemed to be the writing of the same person
unless:
A. they were written by one person
B. embody no basic differences
C. involves combination of agreements
D. all of these
LEGAL MEDICINE

1. A break or solution in the continuity of bone refers to…

A. Fracture B. Wound
C. Dislocation D. contusion
2. A supercooled liquid which possess high viscosity and
rigidity.
A. dry ice B. cartridge case
C. gel D. glass
3. A wound produced by a blunt instrument such as club
and stone.
A. incised wound B. hack wound
C. lacerated wound D. punctured wound
4. Characteristics of gunshot wound of entrance
A. Inverted edge B. Bigger size
C. Protrusion of tissue D. No definite shape
5. Children conceived by prostitutes are called
A. manceres B. adulterous
C. illegitimate D. incestuous
6. How many hours does the stomach completely digest a
medium meal?
A. 2-3 hours B. 3-4 hours
C. 5-6 hours D. 1 hour
7. Instrument used in the measurement of temperature.
A. Endometer B. Barometer
C. Thermometer D. Ananometer
8. It is the major component of a glass.
A. Lime B. Soda
C. Silica D. Gel
9. One is a condition that can approximate the time of
death.
A. Cadaver B. Magnus test
C. Rigor mortis D. None of these
10. Personal identification by dental characteristics is
called-
A. Anthropometry B. Forensic Odontology
C. Portrait Parle D. Victimology
11. The color of blood in post mortem Lividity?
A. Blue B. Violet
C. Pink D. Bright red
12. The following are kinds of death, which one is not?
A. Somatic or Clinical Death B. State of
Suspended Animation
C. Cellular or Molecular DeathD. Regulated
Death
13. The following are valid classifications of wound, except:
A. Abrasions B. Contusions
C. Hematoma D. Gun Shot Wound
14. The process in reproducing physical evidence by plaster
moulds.
A. Casting B. Cementing
C. Moulage D. Sticking
15. A system of Identification best used in case of burned
body.
A. Fingerprint B. Tissue Identification
C. Odontology D. Photography
16. A type of wound which result of a persons instinctive
reaction of self protection
A. Patterned Wounds B. Deep Wounds
C. Defense Wounds D. Self-Inflicted
Wounds
17. A wound which if inflicted in the body so serious that it
will endanger one’s life.
A. mortal wound B. trauma
C. coup injury D. superficial wound
18. A condition of women who have had one or more sexual
experience but not had conceived a child.
A. virgo-intacts B. demi-virginity
C. moral virginity D. physical virginity
19. A displacement of the particular surface of the bone
without external wounds.
A. Hematoma B. Fracture
C. Sprain D. Dislocation
20. All of the following are accurate tests for the presence of
alcohol in the human body except one:
A. Saliva test B. Harger Breath Test
C. Fecal test D. Blood test
21. A person allowed who gives his/her opinion or
conclusion on a given scientific evidence is considered
A. interrogator B. expert witness
C. prosecutor D. judge
22. In forensic examination, a tip of the hair is examined to
determine if it was _______.
A. Bend B. Folded
C. Stretched D. Cut
23. Is the distance of recognition in broad daylight of a person
who is almost a stranger.
A. 100 yards B. 16-17 yards
C. 25 yards D. 10-13 yards
24. It refers to a physical injury found at the site and opposite
site of the application of force.
A. Coup Injury B. Contre-coup injury
C. Coup-contre-coup injury D. Extensive Injury
25. State of not knowing sex life and have not experienced sexual
intercourse:
A. Physical virginity B. Demi-virginity
C. Moral virginity D. Virgo-intacta
26. The medical dissection and examination of a body in order to
determine the caused of death is?
A. Autopsy B. Necropsy
C. Exhumation D. Saponification
27. This is a characteristic that shows the manner of walking of
an individual.
A. Mannerism B. Gait
C. Complexion D. Cerebral Gait
28. Type of physical injury located at the site of application
of force.
A. Coup Injury B. Coup- Contre Coup Injury
C. Contre- Coup Injury D. Physical Injury
29. What refers to the cutting of a body part of another
person to weaken his defense?
A. Castration B. Mayhem
C. Mutilation D. Amputation
30. Which of the following personal identification is not
easy to change?
A. Hair B. Speech
C. Dress D. Personal Pharapernalia

31. Who qualifies a forensic chemist as expert?

A. defence lawyer B. judge
C. prosecutor D. the chemist
himself/herself
32. What is the term referring to those wounds inflicted in a
forward motion?
A. Hit wounds B. Explosion
C. Thrust wounds D. Hack wounds
33. The wound wherein the instrument pierces a solid
organ or tissue?
A. Deep wound B. Penetrating wound
C. Perforating wound D. Superficial wound
34. It is a type of burn caused by the application of heat or
hot object.
A. Radiation burn B. Friction burn
C. Thermal burn D. Electrical burn
35. These are wounds produced by a blunt instrument
accompanied by a sufficient force.
A. hematoma B. tear
C. contusion D. none of these
36. This will always be applied to children below the of age
puberty.
A. physical virginity B. demi- virginity
C. moral virginity D. virgo-intacta
37. Which of the following is not included in the evidences
to determine drunkenness?
A. lack of orientation B. untidy clothing
C. blood shoot eyes D. euphoria
38. An open wound produced by a sharp-pointed
instrument and is characterized by a small opening of the
wound.
A. Gunshot woun B. Stab wound
C. Shrapnel wound D. Punctured wound
39. Examination of the victim’s body in order to determine
the cause of death and what internal organs were destroyed
in injured.
A. autopsy B. probe
C. embalming D. surgery
40. Fixed discoloration of the blood clothed inside the blood
vessels or has diffused to different parts of the body.
A. hypostatic lividity B. diffusion lividity
C. hyper lividity D. rigor mortis
41. It is the rise in the temperature of the body after death
due to rapid and early putrefactive changes or some
internal changes
A. Rigor Mortis B. Post-Mortem Flaccidity
C. Post-Mortem CaloricityD. Putrefaction
42. It refers to a crack in a glass that extends outward like
the spoke of a wheel from the point at which the glass was
struck?
A. Radial Fracture B. Concentric Fracture
C. Ulnar Fracture D. Diagonal Fracture
43. Rigor mortis is very important in determining the
approximate time of death for it starts at about 2 to 6 hrs and
completes at ______?
A. 36 hrs B. 24 hrs
C. 12 hrs D. 48 hrs
44. The ABO system divides the human race into four blood
types. Which of the following types has the lowest
percentage?
A. O type B. B type
C. A type D. AB type
45. The cause of death of a person who immediately died
because of lack of oxygen for around 3 to five minutes
A. Asphyxia B. stupor
C. Stroke D. Exhaustion
46. The complete, continuous, persistent cessation of
respiration, circulation and almost all brain function of an
organism.
A. Apparent death B. Molecular death
C. Cellular Death D. Somatic death
47. These fractures show up on the surface opposite to the
one where the fracturing blow or pressure was applied.
A. Concentric fractures B. Radial fracture
C. Both A & B D. None of these
48. A condition characterized by hardening of the muscle
and coagulation of muscles and due to exposure to burn
and hot spot.
A. Cold stiffening B. rigor mortis
C. Heat stiffening D. algor mortis
49. It is a discoloration of the body after death when blood
tends to pool in the blood vessels of the most dependent
portion of the body.
A. Algor mortis B. rigor mortis
C. Post investigation D. livor mortis
50. It may be made to in order to afford the opportunity for
a post mortem examination to establish the circumstances
of the death.
A. autopsy B. post mortem examination
C. exhumation D. interment
POLYGRAPH

1. “Did you kill Rossey last night?” is an example of what

question?
A. Irrelevant Question B. Control Question
C. Relevant Question D. None of these
2. This component records the changes of breathing of the
subject
A. Cardiosphygmograph B. Pnuemograph
C. Kymograph D. Galvanograph
3. This is the longest and the third pen of the instrument.
A. Pneumograph B. Galvanometer
C. Cardiosphygmograph D. Kymograph
4. Is Fatty, the rape victim, your girlfriend? This is a/an
A. Relevant Questions B. Irrelevant Questions
C. Control Questions D. Conclusive
Questions
5. Cold damp perspiration is a manifestation of shock,
fear and anxiety. Perspiration means?
A. Breathing B. Pulse beat
C. Sweating D. Heart rate
6. It refers to the consistency across
examiners/scorers.
A. Validity B. Reliability
C. Competency D. Infallability
7. These are questions that don't have any bearing to the
case.
A. Relevant Questions B. Irrelevant Questions
C. Control Questions D. Conclusive
Questions
8. These are questions pertaining to the issue under
investigation.
A. Relevant Questions B. Irrelevant Questions
C. Control Questions D. Conclusive
Questions
9. It is the measure of the extent to which an observed
situation reflects the "true" situation.
A. Validity B. Reliability
C. Competency D. Infallability
10. Is the knife found at the crime scene yours? What kind
of question is this?
A. Relevant B. Irrelevant
C. Control D. Conclusive
11. In “polygraph examination”, the term “examination”
means a detection of
A. forgery B. emotion
C. the mind D. deception
12. A list of stimulus and non-stimulus words are read to
the subject who is instructed to answer as quickly as
possible.
A. Word association test B. Psychological stress
evaluator
C. Card test D. Hypnosis
13. It refers to an emotional response to a specific danger,
which appears to go beyond a person’s defensive power.
A. fear B. stimuli
C. response D. reaction
14. The deviation from normal tracing of the subject in the
relevant question.
A. positive response B. specific response
C. normal response D. reaction
15. Ordeal is a term of varying meaning closely related in
the Medieval Latin “Dei Indicum” meaning –
A. Devine intervention B. Miraculous decision
C. God’s hand D. God’s favor
16. If polygraph tracing of a subject indicates that he is
truthful, the examiners finding should be-
A. conclusive B. Inconclusive
C. negative D. Positive
17. Which of the following polygraph channels records the
blood pressure changes and pulses rate of the examinee?
A. Cardiograph channel B. Pneumograph channel
C. Galvanograph channel D. Kymograph channel
18. A well phrased question designed to cause a response
from a subject is technically called –
A. accusatory statement B. specific stimulus
C. symptomatic D. irrelevant question
19. This stage is the initial interview with the investigator
handling the case or the person requesting it.
A. Initial Interview B. Preliminary
Preparations
C. Preliminary Interview D. Initial Preparations
20. These are questions unrelated to the matter under
investigation but are of similar nature.
A. Relevant Questions B. Irrelevant Questions
C. Control Questions D. Conclusive Questions
21. “Were you in the place of the Mr. Alfonso on the night of
October 18, 2014?” is an example of what question?
A. Relevant question B. Irrelevant question
C. Weak relevant question D. Strong relevant
question
22. The deviation from normal tracing of the subject in the
relevant question.
A. Reaction B. Normal response
C. Positive response D. Specific response
23. Which of the following causes physiological changes in
the body of the subject?
A. Peak of tension test B. the fear of
retaliation
C. Irrelevant question D. Relevant question
24. What is the symbol used to indicate start of the
polygraph test marked in the chart?
A. X B. Y
C. W D. XX
25. What part of the polygraph instrument that drives the
chart paper at six inches per minute during the test?
A. Kymograph assembly B. Electronic motor
drive
C. Chart drive mini-motor D. Reactograph drive
motor
26. What refers to the deviation from the normal tracing of
the subject caused by a relevant question?
A. Specific Response B. Normal Response
C. Diastole D. Systole
27. What component of the polygraph records the blood
pressure and the pulse rate of a subject?
A. Pneumograph B. Galvanograph
C. Kymograph D. Cardiosphygmograph
28. What component of the polygraph machine records the
changes in the breathing of the subject?
A. Pneumograph B. Cardiograph
C. Galvanograph D. Kymograph
29. What component of the polygraph records the blood
pressure and the pulse rate of a subject?
A. Pneumograph B. Galvanograph
C. Kymograph D. Cardiosphygmograph
30. Those pertaining to basic data and information
regarding the background of the subject not related to the
case.
A. Sacrifice question B. Crucial question
C. Relevant question D. Irrelevant question
31. The use of “truth serums” such as sodium penthothal
or phenobarbi in the questioning of suspects is called:
A. Narcoanalysis B. Sugar and vinegar
C. The detector test D. Word association method
32. This is a question designed to design and evaluate the
presence of outside issued which may suppose responses to
relevant questions.
A. Symptomatic B. Knowledge question
C. Primary control D. Evidence – connecting
33. This refers to the actual questioning phase of the
polygraph examination.
A. Pre test B. Preliminary Interview
C. Test Execution D. Post test
34. These are questions, which have no bearing to the case
under investigation
A. Control Questions B. Irrelevant Questions
C. Primary Questions D. Relevant Questions
35. A component of the polygraph instrument which
records the blood pressure and the pulse rate of the
subject.
A. Cardiosphygmograph B. Pneumograph
C. Galvanograph D. Kymograph
36. The deviation from normal tracing of the subject in the
relevant question.
A. positive response B. specific response
C. normal response D. reaction
37. Prior to the examination the subject should have at
least ___ hours of sleep.
A. 5 hours B. 10 hours
C. 180 minutes D. 3 hours
38. Refers to a person who is capable of detecting deception
or verifying the truth statements.
A. Polygrapher B. Polygraph examiner
C. Polygraph expert D. Examiner
39. A component of the polygraph instrument which
records the breathing of the subject.
A. Cardiosphygmograph B. Pneumograph
C. Galvanograph D. Kymograph
40. In polygraph examination, what is the standardized
chart marking to begin or start the questioning?
A. B B. S
C. X D. C
41. It refers to an emotional response to a specific danger,
which appears to go beyond a person’s defensive power.
A. Fear B. Stimuli
C. Response D. Reaction
42. In polygraph test, after the subject affirms that he is
involved in a crime the examiner should report it to the?
A. Investigator B. Object relative
C. Prosecutor D. Judge
43. Is an emotional response to specific danger that
appears to be beyond a person’s defensive power.
A. Fear B. Deception
C. Control Question D. Lie

44. If polygraph tracing of a subject indicates that he is

truthful, the examiners finding should be:
A. Conclusive B. Inconclusive
C. Negative D. Positive
45. Is the force or motion reaching the organism from the
environment and excites the receptors.
A. Stimulus B. Reaction
C. Response D. Emotion
46. Is the type of question designed to established normal
response from the subject?
A. Relevant B. Irrelevant
C. Control D. Knowledge
47. In “Polygraph examination”, the term “examination” means a
detection of:
A. forgery B. emotion
C. the mind D. deception
48. In a polygraph test, what test technique does the examiner
used if he utilized padding questions?
A. Peak of tension test B. Stimulation test
C. General question test D. Zone comparison test
49. Before the actual test conducted, the subject must refrain
from consuming alcoholic beverages for at least _______ hours?
A. 6 hours B. 12 hours
C. 5 hours D. 20 hours