Pharmacology Q&A

Claire Dianne Nero Demotica, DDM

The mechanism of action of the drug is best
determined by its:
a. Pharmacokinetics
b. Pharmacodynamics
c. Therapeutic action
d. Pharmaceutical preparations
The mechanism of action of the drug is best
determined by its:
a. Pharmacokinetics
b. Pharmacodynamics
c. Therapeutic action
d. Pharmaceutical preparations
Absorption, distribution, metabolism, and
excretion is the study of the drugs:
a. Pharmacokinetics
b. Pharmacodynamics
c. Therapeutic action
d. Pharmaceutical preparations
e. Toxic effect
Absorption, distribution, metabolism, and
excretion is the study of the drugs:
a. Pharmacokinetics
b. Pharmacodynamics
c. Therapeutic action
d. Pharmaceutical preparations
e. Toxic effect
Art and science of prevention, diagnosis, and
treatment of disease through drugs
a. Posology
b. Pharmacognosy
c. Pharmacy
d. Pharmacotherapeutics
Art and science of prevention, diagnosis, and
treatment of disease through drugs
a. Posology
b. Pharmacognosy
c. Pharmacy
d. Pharmacotherapeutics
This is the art and science of preparing and
dispensing drugs as medicine:
a. Posology
b. Pharmacognosy
c. Pharmacy
d. Pharmacotherapeutics
This is the art and science of preparing and
dispensing drugs as medicine:
a. Posology
b. Pharmacognosy
c. Pharmacy
d. Pharmacotherapeutics
Botanical sources and properties of naturally
occurring drugs:
a. Posology
b. Pharmacognosy
c. Pharmacy
d. Pharmacotherapeutics
Botanical sources and properties of naturally
occurring drugs:
a. Posology
b. Pharmacognosy
c. Pharmacy
d. Pharmacotherapeutics
Study of dosage:
a. Posology
b. Pharmacognosy
c. Pharmacy
d. Pharmacotherapeutics
Study of dosage:
a. Posology
b. Pharmacognosy
c. Pharmacy
d. Pharmacotherapeutics
Which of the following is the study that deals with
the undesirable effects of chemicals on living
systems?
a. Pharmacokinetics
b. Pharmacodynamics
c. Posology
d. Toxicology
Which of the following is the study that deals with
the undesirable effects of chemicals on living
systems?
a. Pharmacokinetics
b. Pharmacodynamics
c. Posology
d. Toxicology
Agency that enforces the control of drugs
considered to have a potential for abuse:
a. Bureau of Food and Drugs
b. Drug Enforcement Administration
c. Federal Drug Agency
d. Federal Trade Commission
e. Department of Health
Agency that enforces the control of drugs
considered to have a potential for abuse:
a. Bureau of Food and Drugs
b. Drug Enforcement Administration
c. Federal Drug Agency
d. Federal Trade Commission
e. Department of Health
RA 6675 is also known as:
a. Dangerous Drugs Act
b. Generics Act
c. Special Law on Counterfeit Drugs
d. PRC Modernization Act of 2000
RA 6675 is also known as:
a. Dangerous Drugs Act
b. Generics Act
c. Special Law on Counterfeit Drugs
d. PRC Modernization Act of 2000
A drug that has both affinity and intrinsic activity:
a. Agonist
b. Antagonist
c. Pure antagonist
d. Partial agonist
e. Mixed agonist-antagonist
A drug that has both affinity and intrinsic activity:
a. Agonist
b. Antagonist
c. Pure antagonist
d. Partial agonist
e. Mixed agonist-antagonist
A drug that has an affinity for a receptor but has
no intrinsic activity:
a. Agonist
b. Antagonist
c. Pure antagonist
d. Partial agonist
e. Mixed agonist-antagonist
A drug that has an affinity for a receptor but has
no intrinsic activity:
a. Agonist
b. Antagonist
c. Pure antagonist
d. Partial agonist
e. Mixed agonist-antagonist
An intrinsic activity of < 1 is exhibited by:
a. Agonist
b. Antagonist
c. Pure antagonist
d. Partial agonist
e. Mixed agonist-antagonist
An intrinsic activity of < 1 is exhibited by:
a. Agonist
b. Antagonist
c. Pure antagonist
d. Partial agonist
e. Mixed agonist-antagonist
Drug agonists having the same intrinsic activity
also have the same ___________.
a. Maximal effect
b. Potency
c. Receptor affinity
d. Therapeutic index
e. Aqueous solubility
Drug agonists having the same intrinsic activity
also have the same ___________.
a. Maximal effect
b. Potency
c. Receptor affinity
d. Therapeutic index
e. Aqueous solubility
It is defined as the fraction of drug absorbed by
the body:
a. Bioavailability
b. Half-life
c. Steady state
d. Volume of distribution
e. Clearance
It is defined as the fraction of drug absorbed by
the body:
a. Bioavailability
b. Half-life
c. Steady state
d. Volume of distribution
e. Clearance
Which of the following describes the relationship
of the blood concentration attained with initial
dosing and the dose of the drug given:
a. Bioavailability
b. Half-life
c. Steady state
d. Volume of distribution
e. Clearance
Which of the following describes the relationship
of the blood concentration attained with initial
dosing and the dose of the drug given:
a. Bioavailability
b. Half-life
c. Steady state
d. Volume of distribution
e. Clearance
This serves as an indication of time required for a
dosing regimen to achieve a steady state
concentration of drug in blood:
a. Bioavailability
b. Half-life
c. Steady state
d. Volume of distribution
e. Clearance
This serves as an indication of time required for a
dosing regimen to achieve a steady state
concentration of drug in blood:
a. Bioavailability
b. Half-life
c. Steady state
d. Volume of distribution
e. Clearance
It is a measure of drug activity in terms of the
amount required to produce an effect:
a. Efficacy
b. Potency
c. Therapeutic index
d. Therapeutic effects
e. Adverse effects
It is a measure of drug activity in terms of the
amount required to produce an effect:
a. Efficacy
b. Potency
c. Therapeutic index
d. Therapeutic effects
e. Adverse effects
It is the ability of the drug to elicit its maximum
inherent physiological effect:
a. Efficacy
b. Potency
c. Therapeutic index
d. Therapeutic effects
e. Adverse effects
It is the ability of the drug to elicit its maximum
inherent physiological effect:
a. Efficacy
b. Potency
c. Therapeutic index
d. Therapeutic effects
e. Adverse effects
The Therapeutic Index is a measure of a drug’s
a. Mean effective dosage
b. Effectiveness against disease
c. Usual therapeutic dose
d. Margin of safety
The Therapeutic Index is a measure of a drug’s
a. Mean effective dosage
b. Effectiveness against disease
c. Usual therapeutic dose
d. Margin of safety
When two drugs having similar effects are
administered are administered in combination,
and the resulting response is the sum of the
individual actions of each drug when given alone,
then this result is referred to as:
a. An additive effect
b. A synergistic response
c. An antoginistic effect
d. Cumulative action
When two drugs having similar effects are
administered are administered in combination,
and the resulting response is the sum of the
individual actions of each drug when given alone,
then this result is referred to as:
a. An additive effect
b. A synergistic response
c. An antoginistic effect
d. Cumulative action
When the combined action of two drugs is greater
than the sum of their individual action, this is:
a. Induction
b. Idiosyncrasy
c. Hypersensitivity
d. Cumulation action
e. Synergism
When the combined action of two drugs is greater
than the sum of their individual action, this is:
a. Induction
b. Idiosyncrasy
c. Hypersensitivity
d. Cumulation action
e. Synergism
Most drugs are metabolized to products that are
more easily excreted because they are ________
than the original compound.
a. Less polar and more lipid soluble
b. Less polar and less lipid soluble
c. More polar and more lipid soluble
d. More polar and less lipid soluble
Most drugs are metabolized to products that are
more easily excreted because they are ________
than the original compound.
a. Less polar and more lipid soluble
b. Less polar and less lipid soluble
c. More polar and more lipid soluble
d. More polar and less lipid soluble
The most important enzyme systems for the
biotransformation of drug molecules are found in
the:
a. Lungs
b. Liver
c. Brain
d. Gastrointestinal tract
The most important enzyme systems for the
biotransformation of drug molecules are found in
the:
a. Lungs
b. Liver
c. Brain
d. Gastrointestinal tract
Drugs may be excreted by any route in the body
except:
a. Kidney
b. Lungs
c. GIT
d. Saliva
e. Tears
Drugs may be excreted by any route in the body
except:
a. Kidney
b. Lungs
c. GIT
d. Saliva
e. Tears
100% bioavailability and high plasma
concentrations can be achieved through what
type of drug administration?
a. Oral
b. Intravenous
c. Inhalation
d. Intradermal
100% bioavailability and high plasma
concentrations can be achieved through what
type of drug administration?
a. Oral
b. Intravenous
c. Inhalation
d. Intradermal
Which of the following is considered to be the
most convenient route of drug administration?
a. Oral
b. Rectal
c. Intravenous
d. Inhalation
Which of the following is considered to be the
most convenient route of drug administration?
a. Oral
b. Rectal
c. Intravenous
d. Inhalation
Which drug has higher bioavailability with oral
administration than with IV administration?
a. Gentamicin
b. Sulfonamide
c. Chlorampenicol
d. Clindamycin
Which drug has higher bioavailability with oral
administration than with IV administration?
a. Gentamicin
b. Sulfonamide
c. Chlorampenicol
d. Clindamycin
The dentist, who planned to sedate a patient
intravenously, first injects a test dose into the
patient’s arm. Immediately, upon receiving the
injection, the patient experiences a severe,
burning pain at the site of injection; it radiates
distally. Simultaneously, her arm becomes blotchy
with several unblanched areas. Although her
pulse in that arm is regular, it is weaker than her
unaffected side. Which of the following might
account for these findings?
a. An injection into an artery
b. An injection into the radial nerve
c. An injection into the muscle compartment
d. An impending anaphylactic reaction
The dentist, who planned to sedate a patient
intravenously, first injects a test dose into the
patient’s arm. Immediately, upon receiving the
injection, the patient experiences a severe,
burning pain at the site of injection; it radiates
distally. Simultaneously, her arm becomes blotchy
with several unblanched areas. Although her
pulse in that arm is regular, it is weaker than her
unaffected side. Which of the following might
account for these findings?
a. An injection into an artery
b. An injection into the radial nerve
c. An injection into the muscle compartment
d. An impending anaphylactic reaction
Which of the following is not an accepted site for
intramuscular injections?
a. Buttocks
b. Anterior thigh
c. Deltoid muscle
d. Biceps muscle
Which of the following is not an accepted site for
intramuscular injections?
a. Buttocks
b. Anterior thigh
c. Deltoid muscle
d. Biceps muscle
Glyceryl trinitrate for angina is most effective when
given in what route?
a. Orally
b. Intravenously
c. Subcutaneously
d. Intramuscularly
e. Sublingually
Glyceryl trinitrate for angina is most effective when
given in what route?
a. Orally
b. Intravenously
c. Subcutaneously
d. Intramuscularly
e. Sublingually
Action of Tranexamic Acid:
a. Anti-platelet
b. Fibrinolytic
c. Anti-fibrinolytic
d. Anti-coagulant
Action of Tranexamic Acid:
a. Anti-platelet
b. Fibrinolytic
c. Anti-fibrinolytic
d. Anti-coagulant
Which of the following causes Salicylism?
a. Salicylic acid
b. Acetyl salicylic acid
c. Phenacetin
d. Aspirin
Which of the following causes Salicylism?
a. Salicylic acid
b. Acetyl salicylic acid
c. Phenacetin
d. Aspirin
This drug when taken orally reverses the hepatic
necrosis effect of paracetamol:
a. Naloxone
b. Vitamin K
c. Warfarin
d. Acetylcysteine
e. Diphenhydramine
This drug when taken orally reverses the hepatic
necrosis effect of paracetamol:
a. Naloxone
b. Vitamin K
c. Warfarin
d. Acetylcysteine
e. Diphenhydramine
Which among the following drugs has been pulled
out in the market due to its proven toxicity to liver?
a. Phenacetin
b. Paracetamol
c. Ibuprofen
d. Aspirin
Which among the following drugs has been pulled
out in the market due to its proven toxicity to liver?
a. Phenacetin
b. Paracetamol
c. Ibuprofen
d. Aspirin
Which of the following is more selective for
inhibition of COX-2 than of COX-1?
a. Aspirin
b. Acetaminophen
c. Celecoxib
d. Etodolac
Which of the following is more selective for
inhibition of COX-2 than of COX-1?
a. Aspirin
b. Acetaminophen
c. Celecoxib
d. Etodolac
The following are H1 receptor antagonist, except:
a. Chlorphenamine
b. Promethazine
c. Cimetidine
d. Diphenhydramine
e. Terfenadine
The following are H1 receptor antagonist, except:
a. Chlorphenamine
b. Promethazine
c. Cimetidine
d. Diphenhydramine
e. Terfenadine
Any post-operative antibiotics should be
administered at appropriate therapeutic levels for
a minimum of:
a. 24 hrs
b. 3 days
c. 5 days
d. 8 days
e. 10 days
Any post-operative antibiotics should be
administered at appropriate therapeutic levels for
a minimum of:
a. 24 hrs
b. 3 days
c. 5 days
d. 8 days
e. 10 days
When treating infections in the oral cavity and
there is no existing sensitivities, the antibiotic of
choice is:
a. Penicillin
b. Lincomycin
c. Erythromycin
d. Streptomycin
e. Tetraycline
When treating infections in the oral cavity and
there is no existing sensitivities, the antibiotic of
choice is:
a. Penicillin
b. Lincomycin
c. Erythromycin
d. Streptomycin
e. Tetraycline
For treating most oral infections, penicillin V is
preferred to penicillin G because penicillin V is:
a. Less allergenic
b. Greater gram-negative spectrum
c. Bactericidal, whereas Pen G is not
d. Less sensitive to acid degradation
e. Has a longer duration of action
For treating most oral infections, penicillin V is
preferred to penicillin G because penicillin V is:
a. Less allergenic
b. Greater gram-negative spectrum
c. Bactericidal, whereas Pen G is not
d. Less sensitive to acid degradation
e. Has a longer duration of action
Which antibiotic is associated with the highest
incidence of drug allergy?
a. Ciprofloxacin
b. Penicillin VK
c. Clindamycin
d. Metronidazole
Which antibiotic is associated with the highest
incidence of drug allergy?
a. Ciprofloxacin
b. Penicillin VK
c. Clindamycin
d. Metronidazole
A patient who is allergic to penicillin will have an
allergic reaction to which of the following drugs:
a. Neomycin
b. Cefalexin
c. Ertythromycin
d. Tetracycline
A patient who is allergic to penicillin will have an
allergic reaction to which of the following drugs:
a. Neomycin
b. Cefalexin
c. Ertythromycin
d. Tetracycline
Which drug is often combined with
Sulfamethoxazole for the treatment of respiratory
tract and urinary tract infections?
a. Amoxicillin
b. Ciprofloxacin
c. Clindamycin
d. Metronidazole
e. Trimetoprim
Which drug is often combined with
Sulfamethoxazole for the treatment of respiratory
tract and urinary tract infections?
a. Amoxicillin
b. Ciprofloxacin
c. Clindamycin
d. Metronidazole
e. Trimetoprim
Which of the following is often co-administered
with antiobiotics to delay the renal clearance of
the antibiotic?
a. Imipenem
b. Probenecid
c. Aztreonam
d. Ceftazidime
Which of the following is often co-administered
with antiobiotics to delay the renal clearance of
the antibiotic?
a. Imipenem
b. Probenecid
c. Aztreonam
d. Ceftazidime
Which of the following beta-blockers can be
given to asthmatic patients (beta-1 selective)?
a. Carteolol
b. Timolol
c. Esmolol
d. Propanolol
Which of the following beta-blockers can be
given to asthmatic patients (beta-1 selective)?
a. Carteolol
b. Timolol
c. Esmolol
d. Propanolol
Which of the following is used primarily in the
diagnosis of myasthenia gravis?
a. Pyridostigmine
b. Edrophonium
c. Pilocarpine
d. Carbachol
Which of the following is used primarily in the
diagnosis of myasthenia gravis?
a. Pyridostigmine
b. Edrophonium
c. Pilocarpine
d. Carbachol
Which of the following is used primarily in the
treatment of myasthenia gravis?
a. Pyridostigmine
b. Edrophonium
c. Pilocarpine
d. Carbachol
Which of the following is used primarily in the
treatment of myasthenia gravis?
a. Pyridostigmine
b. Edrophonium
c. Pilocarpine
d. Carbachol
The administration of which compound will give
“epinephrine reversal” (drop in blood pressure
from epinephrine) if given prior to administration of
epinephrine?
a. Guanethidine
b. Propanolol
c. Phenoxybenzamine
d. Tyramine
The administration of which compound will give
“epinephrine reversal” (drop in blood pressure
from epinephrine) if given prior to administration of
epinephrine?
a. Guanethidine
b. Propanolol
c. Phenoxybenzamine
d. Tyramine
During a visit to the dentist, a patient develops a
severe, acute bronchial asthmatic attack. He
should immediately receive:
a. Cortisone
b. Epinephrine
c. Diphenhydramine
d. 90% O2, 10% CO2
During a visit to the dentist, a patient develops a
severe, acute bronchial asthmatic attack. He
should immediately receive:
a. Cortisone
b. Epinephrine
c. Diphenhydramine
d. 90% O2, 10% CO2
A patient receiving propranolol has an acute
asthmatic attack while undergoing dental
treatment. The most useful agent for
management of the condition is:
a. Morphine
b. Epinephrine
c. Norepinephrine
d. Phentolamine
e. Aminophylline
A patient receiving propranolol has an acute
asthmatic attack while undergoing dental
treatment. The most useful agent for
management of the condition is:
a. Morphine
b. Epinephrine
c. Norepinephrine
d. Phentolamine
e. Aminophylline
The single most useful agent in resuscitation:
a. Oxygen
b. A respiratory stimulant
c. An endotracheal tube
d. 1:1000 epinephrine for injection
e. Aromatic spirits of ammonia
The single most useful agent in resuscitation:
a. Oxygen
b. A respiratory stimulant
c. An endotracheal tube
d. 1:1000 epinephrine for injection
e. Aromatic spirits of ammonia
The principal danger associated with the use of
nitrous oxide anesthesia in concentrations
exceeding 80% is:
a. Hypoxia
b. Renal damage
c. Liver damage
d. Vomiting and nausea
e. Irritation of the respiratory tract
The principal danger associated with the use of
nitrous oxide anesthesia in concentrations
exceeding 80% is:
a. Hypoxia
b. Renal damage
c. Liver damage
d. Vomiting and nausea
e. Irritation of the respiratory tract
The most serious and life-threatening blood
dyscrasia associated with drug toxicity is:
a. Aplastic anemia
b. Agranulocytosis
c. Thrombocytopenia
d. Hemolytic anemia
e. Megaloblastic anemia
The most serious and life-threatening blood
dyscrasia associated with drug toxicity is:
a. Aplastic anemia
b. Agranulocytosis
c. Thrombocytopenia
d. Hemolytic anemia
e. Megaloblastic anemia
A decrease in glycogenolysis in the liver would be
expected from which drug?
a. Albuterol
b. Epinephrine
c. Glucagon
d. Insulin
e. Parathyroid hormone
A decrease in glycogenolysis in the liver would be
expected from which drug?
a. Albuterol
b. Epinephrine
c. Glucagon
d. Insulin
e. Parathyroid hormone
Which drug used in the therapy for Parkinsonism
does not cross the blood brain barrier?
a. Amantadine
b. Carbidopa
c. Levodopa
d. Selegiline
e. Tolcapone
Which drug used in the therapy for Parkinsonism
does not cross the blood brain barrier?
a. Amantadine
b. Carbidopa
c. Levodopa
d. Selegiline
e. Tolcapone
Which drug is the standard to which all opiates
are compared?
a. Codeine
b. Oxycodone
c. Morphine
d. Meperidine
Which drug is the standard to which all opiates
are compared?
a. Codeine
b. Oxycodone
c. Morphine
d. Meperidine
Which of the following is not an effect of opioids?
a. Analgesic
b. Anti-inflammatory
c. Anti-tussive
d. Anti-diarrhea
Which of the following is not an effect of opioids?
a. Analgesic
b. Anti-inflammatory
c. Anti-tussive
d. Anti-diarrhea
Which of the following is not an effect of opioids?
a. Analgesic
b. Anti-inflammatory
c. Anti-tussive
d. Anti-diarrhea
Which of the following is not an effect of opioids?
a. Analgesic
b. Anti-inflammatory
c. Anti-tussive
d. Anti-diarrhea
A patient has a morphine coma. What is the
mediation of choice to reverse its act?
a. Bradykinin
b. Epinephrine
c. Amphetamine
d. Naloxone
A patient has a morphine coma. What is the
mediation of choice to reverse its act?
a. Bradykinin
b. Epinephrine
c. Amphetamine
d. Naloxone
Which of the following is a synthetic opioid
analgesic used as an intravenous sedative is 50x
more potent than morphine?
a. Meperidine
b. Fentanyl
c. Pentazocine
d. Propoxyphene
Which of the following is a synthetic opioid
analgesic used as an intravenous sedative is 50x
more potent than morphine?
a. Meperidine
b. Fentanyl
c. Pentazocine
d. Propoxyphene
The primary effect produced by digitalis
therapeutic dose levels is:
a. A slowing of the cardiac rate
b. A decrease in the venous pressure
c. A decrease in cardiac enlargement
d. An increase in the force of myocardial contraction
The primary effect produced by digitalis
therapeutic dose levels is:
a. A slowing of the cardiac rate
b. A decrease in the venous pressure
c. A decrease in cardiac enlargement
d. An increase in the force of myocardial contraction
Metformin is a drug used for what disease?
a. Cancer
b. Diabetes
c. Hypertension
d. Anginoris
Metformin is a drug used for what disease?
a. Cancer
b. Diabetes
c. Hypertension
d. Anginoris
Propylthiouracil:
a. Hypothyroidism
b. Hyperthyroidism
c. Addision’s disease
d. Vit. B12 deficiency
Propylthiouracil:
a. Hypothyroidism
b. Hyperthyroidism
c. Addision’s disease
d. Vit. B12 deficiency
Oral contraceptives act on:
a. Ovulation
b. Fertilization
c. Follicle stimulating hormone
d. Luteinizing hormone
Oral contraceptives act on:
a. Ovulation
b. Fertilization
c. Follicle stimulating hormone
d. Luteinizing hormone
Which of the following adverse reactions of oral
contraceptives is the most common and most
serious?
a. Hypotension
b. Hepatotoxicity
c. Decreased resistance to infection
d. Uterine neoplasia
e. Thromboembolic disorder
Which of the following adverse reactions of oral
contraceptives is the most common and most
serious?
a. Hypotension
b. Hepatotoxicity
c. Decreased resistance to infection
d. Uterine neoplasia
e. Thromboembolic disorder
Which anti-TB drug is responsible for the red-
orange discoloration of body fluids?
a. Isoniazid
b. Rifampicin
c. Ethambutol
d. Streptomycin
Which anti-TB drug is responsible for the red-
orange discoloration of body fluids?
a. Isoniazid
b. Rifampicin
c. Ethambutol
d. Streptomycin