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GARDEN HIGH SCHOOL

CLASS X
Half-Yearly Examination, 2008 09
Bengali
Time: 3 hours Full Marks: 80
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GARDEN HIGH SCHOOL
CLASS X
Half-Yearly Examination, 2008 09
Biology
Time: 1 hours Full Marks: 80
Answers must be written in the script/s provided. You will not be allowed to write during the
first 15 minutes. This time must be spent in reading the Question Paper. The time given at
the head of this Paper is the time allowed for writing answers.
This Paper is divided into two sections.
Attempt all questions of Section A and any four of Section B.
Maximum marks for a question or parts of a question are given in brackets [ ].
SECTION A (40 marks)
Answer all the questions.
1. (a) Name the following: [5]
(i) The shortest phase of mitosis
(ii) The chemical that absorbs CO
2
during the dark reaction
(iii) The muscles in the human eye which are concerned with accomodation
(iv) The part of the brain which contains reflex centres, like the cardiac centre and
the respiratory centre
(v) The structure which controls the pituitary
(b) If a particular structure and its special function can be shown thus:
Glomerulus ultrafiltration,
then fill in the blanks. [5]
(i) Beta cells of pancreas ________
(ii) Cone cells ________
(iii) Hydathode ________
(iv) Micro-tubules in plants ________
(v) Ear ossicles ________
(c) Briefly explain the following terms: [5]
(i) Crossing over
(ii) Disinfectant
(iii) Mutation
(iv) Acromegaly
(v) Active immunity
( 2 )
(d) Given below is an experimental set-up to study the importance of a particular factor
of a physiological process: [5]
(i) What is the aim of the experiment?
(ii) Name the process being studied.
(iii) Explain the process
(iv) Give the balanced chemical equation of the reaction involved in the process.
(v) Mention one way in which this process is beneficial to animals.
(e) First state whether the following statements are true or false. Then, rewrite a false
statement after correcting it by changing only its last word. [5]
(i) Oxytocin helps in osmoregulation.
(ii) Any gene that produces an effect in the heterozygous condition is called
recessive.
(iii) Organ of corti is present in tympanum.
(iv) Myopia can be corrected by using a concave lens.
(v) Root hairs are the extensions of the outer epidermal cells of the root.
(f) Rewrite each set, arranging the five terms it contains in a logical sequence: [5]
(i) Lens, Pupil, Fovea, Cornea, Optic nerve
(ii) Anterior pituitary, Thyroid gland, TSH, Hypothalamus, Thyroxine
(iii) Tympanum, Stapes, Incus, Auditory canal, Malleus
(iv) Anaphase, Metaphase, Telophase, Prophase, Interphase
(v) Protoplasm, Cell, Tissue, Organ system, Organ
( 3 )
(g) What kind of children will be born to a normal father (XY) and a mother who is a
carrier of (XX) red-green colour blindness? [5]
(h) In the following sentences, each sign indicates a missing key word. Supply the
missing words and rewrite the sentences. [5]
(i) Hormones are organic chemicals secreted by glands and are released into
the to bring about widespread changes.
(ii) Uneven curvature of the causes astigmatism.
(iii) When the amount of water lost through transpiration exceeds through roots,
leaf cells become flaccid causing of the plant.
SECTION B (40 marks)
Answer any four questions.
2. (a) An experiment was set up with a raw potato tuber as shown in the following diagram.
The skin of the tuber was removed and it was cut in the shape of square block. The
central portion was scooped out to form a cup. A strong sugar solution was poured
into the cup, and the level was marked by inserting a pin. The whole potato block
was put in a dish containing water coloured with a drop of red ink. [4]
(i) What is the aim of the experiment?
(ii) What is the purpose of putting a drop of red ink in the water?
(iii) What will you observe after one hour?
(iv) If the raw potato is replaced with a boiled potato, other things remaining the
same, will there be any difference in the result of the experiment?
(b) Draw a labelled diagram of the inner ear. [2 +3]
(c) Name the part of the ear that maintains static balance. [1]
3. (a) Draw a labelled diagram of a myelinated nephron. [1 +3]
(b) Give the full forms of: (i) DPT (ii) BCG (iii) AIDS (iv) ACTH [2]
(c) Name two human diseases for which vaccination provides effective protection. [2]
(d) What is antiserum? [2]
( 4 )
4. (a) Draw the diagram of a nucleus of a cell, with 4 chromosomes as it would appear in
the metaphase stage of mitosis, and label the following parts: [1 +3]
(i) Aster (iv) Centromere
(ii) Chromatid (v) Equatorial plane
(iii) Spindle (vi) Pole
(b) Explain: [2 +2]
(i) Two adaptations for photosynthesis in leaves
(ii) Two adaptations to reduce transpiration
(c) Briefly explain the following terms: [1 +1]
(i) Bleeding in plants (ii) Osmosis
5. (a) Make a simple outline sketch of the human body, and indicate the locations of the
following structures and label them: [1 +4]
(i) Pituitary gland (iii) Thyroid gland
(ii) Pancreas (iv) Adrenal gland
(b) Write a short note on WHO. [3]
(c) Give the locations of: (i) Hypothalamus (ii) Pons [1 +1]
6. (a) Differentiate between the following (one point each) : [4]
(i) Sympathetic Nervous Systems and Parasympathetic Nervous Systems
(ii) Diabetes Mellitus and Diabetes Insipidus
(iii) Cretinism and Myxoedema
(iv) Afferent and Efferent Neurons
(b) Give biological reasons for the following : [3 2 =6]
(i) Usually, when one addresses an audience, ones mouth dries up and the heart
beats faster.
(ii) A person is unable to see anything for a few seconds when he goes from a
brightly lit room to a dark one.
(iii) It is better to transplant seedlings to a flower bed in the evening than in the
morning.
Answers must be written in the script/s provided. You will not be allowed to write during the
first 15 minutes. This time must be spent in reading the Question Paper. The time given at
the head of this Paper is the time allowed for writing answers.
This Paper is divided into two sections.
Attempt all questions of Section I and any four of Section II.
Maximum marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ].
SECTION I (40 marks)
Answer all the questions.
Question No 1
(a) From the following list of gases, choose the correct option which matches the
description given below: [5]
sulphur dioxide, hydrogen chloride, carbon dioxide, chlorine, hydrogen sulphide,
nitrogen dioxide, nitrous oxide
(i) A colourless gas which fumes in moist air
(ii) A colourless gas which is obtained by the decomposition of a nitrate
(iii) A colourless gas which turns lead nitrate solution black
(iv) A colourless gas which turns lime water milky but does not have any action on
an acidified potassium dichromate solution
(v) A colourless gas which bleaches temporarily
(b) Name the compounds formed as precipitates when the following reactions take place:
[5]
(i) Dilute sulphuric acid is added to barium chloride solution.
(ii) Aqueous sodium hydroxide is added to ferrous sulphate solution.
(iii) Hydrogen sulphide is passed over cupric sulphate solution.
(iv) Ammonium hydroxide is added to ferric chloride solution.
(v) Dilute hydrochloric acid is added to lead nitrate solution.
GARDEN HIGH SCHOOL
CLASS X
Half-Yearly Examination, 2008 09
Chemistry
Time: 1 hours Full Marks: 80
( 2 )
(c) (i) The empirical formula of a compound is AB
3
. If the vapour density and the
empirical formula weight of the compound are the same, deduce the molecular
formula of the compound. [2]
(ii) A gas occupies a volume of 112 cm
3
at S.T.P. If the gm. molecular weight of
the gas is 64 gm, calculate the
(A) number of moles in 112 cm
3
of the gas.
(B) weight of the gas in gm.
(C) number of molecules present in 112 cm
3
of the gas. [3]
(iii) At S.T.P. 112 cm
3
of a gaseous fluoride of phosphorous weighs 0.63 gm.
Calculate the relative molecular mass of the fluoride. If the molecule of the
fluoride contains only one atom of phosphorous, determine the formula of the
fluoride of phosphorus. (P =31, F =19) [5]
(d) (i) Classify the following as alkane, alkene and alkyne: [3]
8 3 10 5 2 2 14 6 6 4 6 3
H C , H C , H C , H C , H C , H C
(ii) Write down the IUPAC names of the following: [3]
(A)
CH
3
CH CH
3
CH
3
(C)
3 2 2
CH CH CH CH =
(B) CH
3
C OH
O
(e) Choose the correct option from the given list of salts which matches the description
given below: [4]
copper (II) sulphate, lead (II) sulphate, iron (II) sulphide, zinc sulphate
(i) A salt which is prepared by the action of a dilute acid on a metal.
(ii) A salt which is prepared by the action of a dilute acid on an oxide.
(iii) A salt which is prepared by direct combination.
(iv) A salt which is prepared by precipitation.
(f) Match and pair the following: [5]
I II
(i) Weak electrolyte (A) Baking soda
(ii) Acid salt (B) Reductant
(iii) Ethyne (C) Unsaturation
(iv) Sulphur dioxide (D) Efflorescence
(v) Washing soda (E) Carbonic acid
( 3 )
(g) Copy and complete the table given below: [5]
Process Electrolyte Cathode reaction Anode reaction
Electroplating
Ag e Ag

+
+
(silver plating)
Electrorefining Copper sulphate
+ +
Cu 2e Cu

of copper solution
Electrolytic Molten potassium
extraction of hydroxide
metals
SECTION II (40 marks)
Answer any four questions.
Question No 2
(a) (i) Write down the reactions and the conditions necessary for the preparation of
sulphuric acid by the Contact Process. [3]
(ii) Sulphuric acid is not prepared by dissolving sulphur trioxide in water. Explain. [1]
(iii) What is aqua regia? [1]
(b) Define the following: [2]
(i) Molar volume
(ii) Ionisation potential
(c) Identify the products: [3]
(i) ?
C 165
SO H conc
OH H C
o
4 2
5 2


(ii)
?
heat
CaO NaOH
COONa CH
3

+
(iii)
?
OH NH
Cl Cu
H C
4
2 2
2 2

Question No 3
(a) (i) Determine the molecular formula of the compound which contains H =6
.
67%,
C =40% and the rest oxygen, and 0
.
6 gm of which occupies 224 cm
3
at S.T.P.
[C =12, H =1, O =16] [4]
(ii) A hydrated sulphate of a divalent metal M [atomic wt. 24] contains 51
.
22%
water of crystallization. Calculate the number of molecules of water of
crystallization in the hydrated salt. [S =32, H =1, O =16] [3]
( 4 )
(b) What happens when
(i) Ammonia is passed over heated cupric oxide.
(ii) Sulphur is heated with concentrated nitric acid.
(iii) Hydrogen sulphide is passed over lead acetate solution. [3]
Question No 4
(a) (i) Give statement and balanced chemical equation for the laboratory method of
preparation of ammonia. [2]
(ii) Ammonia cannot be dried by concentrated sulphuric acid. Explain. [1]
(iii) What do you observe when an excess of ammonia solution is added to cupric
sulphate solution? [2]
(b) The atomic numbers of five elements A, B, C, D, E are Z +1, Z, Z +2, Z 1, Z 3
respectively. B is an inert gas with a stable octet configuration. Answer the following
questions with the help of the above information: [5]
(i) Which element has the highest electronegativity?
(ii) Arrange the elements A, C, D, and E in order of increasing basic nature of their
oxides.
(iii) What is the formula of the compound formed by C and E?
(iv) Which element has the highest reducing character?
(v) Arrange the elements A, C, D, E in order of decreasing ionization potential.
Question No 5
(a) (i) State Avogadros hypothesis. [2]
(ii) Calculate the volumes of the following samples of gases at STP: [3]
(A) 10
2
mole of ozone
(B) 12.046 10
22
molecules of carbon monoxide
(C) 8.5 gm. of ammonia. [N =14, H =1]
(b) Draw the electron dot diagrams of the following: [3]
(i)
+
O H
3
(ii)
4
CCl (iii)
2
N
(c) Complete and balance the following equations: [2]
(i) HCl Ca(HSO
2 3
+ )
(ii) HCl O Cr K
7 2 2
+
( 5 )
Question No 6
(a) (i) Define homologous series. [1]
(ii) Draw the structural formulae of the following: [3]
(A) a carboxylic acid containing two carbon atoms
(B) an alcohol containing three carbon atoms
(C) an alkyne containing three carbon atoms
(b) Give one chemical test to distinguish between each pair: [2]
(i) A solution containing
+ 2
Fe ions and a solution containing
+ 3
Fe ions.
(ii) Dilute hydrochloric acid and dilute nitric acid.
(c) Copy and complete the table by selecting the correction option given in the following
list: [4]
methane, caustic soda solution, phosphoric acid, carbon tetrachloride, dilute sulphuric
acid, zinc hydroxide, dilute nitric acid, sugar solution.
Solution contains
Ions only Molecules only Ions as well as molecules
Question No 7
(a) Using sulphuric acid as one of the reagents, how will you prepare the following salts?
(Give balanced chemical equations.) [4]
(i) Cupric sulphate
(ii) Zinc sulphate
(iii) Sodium sulphate
(iv) Barium sulphate
(b) How will you differentiate between: [3]
(i) A normal salt and an acid salt
(ii) Period and group
(iii) A strong electrolyte and a weak electrolyte
(c) (i) Write down the reactions involved in the Ring Test. [2]
(ii) A water soluble crystalline solid R on heating leaves no residue. R when
warmed with NaOH solution liberates a pungent smelling gas which turns red
litmus solution blue. Identify R. [1]
GARDEN HIGH SCHOOL
CLASS X
Half-Yearly Examination, 2008 09
Commercial Applications
Time: 2 hours Full Marks: 100
Answers must be written in the script/s provided. You will not be allowed to write during the
first 15 minutes. This time must be spent in reading the Question Paper. The time given at
the head of this Paper is the time allowed for writing answers.
This Paper is divided into two sections.
Attempt all the questions of Section A and any four questions of Section B.
Maximum marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ].
SECTION A (40 marks)
Answer all the questions. Be as brief as possible.
Question No 1
Briefly explain the difference between:
(a) Capital Market and Money Market [2]
(b) Marketing and Selling [2]
(c) Fixed Assets and Current Assets [2]
(d) Receipts and Payments Account, and Income and Expenditure Account [2]
(e) Overdraft and Cash Credit [2]
Question No 2
(a) What is an organized market? [2]
(b) State the importance of marketing mix. [2]
(c) Mention two limitations of direct selling. [2]
(d) Why is the Ledger called the principal book of account? [2]
(e) Explain the Money Measurement Concept of accounting. [2]
Question No 3
(a) What is an industrial product? [2]
(b) Mention four qualities of a good brand. [2]
(c) Name any four subsidiary books used in accounting. [2]
(d) What is an endowment fund? [2]
(e) What is a recurring deposit account? [2]
( 2 )
Question No 4
Giving two reasons in each case, state which statement is valid and which is not:
(a) Branding is a myth, not a reality. [2]
(b) A service is different from a product. [2]
(c) Advertising is a wasteful expenditure. [2]
(d) Travellers cheques make travelling safe and convenient. [2]
(e) The Balance Sheet is a mirror of the business wherein the business can see its face.
[2]
SECTION B (60 marks)
Answer any four questions.
Question No 5
(a) Discuss the importance of modern marketing. [5]
(b) What do you understand by home shopping? What are its benefits? [5]
(c) Explain the most appropriate channel of distribution for selling heavy industrial
products. [5]
Question No 6
(a) You are the Marketing Manager of a Fast Moving Consumer Goods (FMCG) Company.
You find that one of your products, a toothpaste, is in its growth stage. Describe the
steps that you would take to increase your sales at this stage. [5]
(b) What is penetrating pricing? Identify two conditions under which it is desirable.[5]
(c) What is meant by product mix? What are its important elements? [5]
Question No 7
(a) State the essential qualities of a good advertisement. [5]
(b) How can a business firm promote its brand? [5]
(c) Discuss the importance of personal selling in marketing. [5]
Question No 8
(a) Explain, with a diagram, what you understand by the Accounting Cycle. [5]
(b) Name and explain the accounting principle which says Record all anticipated
losses but ignore all anticipated gains. [5]
(c) State five important features of an Income and Expenditure Account. [5]
( 3 )
Question No 9
(a) How are the liabilities of a business classified? [5]
(b) Explain the procedure of opening a bank account. [5]
(c) Discuss any two quantitative methods of credit control adopted by the Reserve Bank
of India. [5]
Question No 10
Case study:
Price cuts have enabled FMCG companies like HLL and P&G to increase sales. Volumes
of major detergent brands have increased by 15 17 per cent. Analysts in fact expect Surf
Excel to be a success story for HLL. The company expects more from the brand in the
coming years.
Launching sachets and positioning the brand in the affordable category was
necessitated by the presence of a number of highly competitive smaller brands in the
market. Henko, Nirma, Ghari Detergents, Friendly Wash and many other smaller brands
have challenged the giants by offering a price which attracts the value-conscious Indian
consumers. In fact, unbranded players are offering packs which are twice the size of a
branded product with similar or better quality at a cheaper price. Very clearly the FMCG
majors have to maintain the brand reputation or just simply cut prices.
The manufacturers attribute the price drops to internal cost efficiencies especially
with the supply chain. Analysts say the FMCG companies will have to drop prices further
to get the right value equation in the market. There is no other way to grow. The companies
have tried easy innovation and relaunch. The fact is that there is a market at a price and
they cannot afford to overprice their products. The companies are just going to do what
Nestle did some time back to get the price equation right.
(a) Why has the volume of sales of the detergents increased? [2]
(b) In view of the fact that unbranded products have posed a challenge to the branded
items, do you think branding is useless? Give reasons for your answer. [3]
(c) If the FMCG companies have to reduce prices further, will that mean that the pricing
decisions taken earlier were faulty? [5]
(d) In addition to price cuts, what other measures should the FMCG firms take to ensure
the growth of their detergent brands in future? [5]
GARDEN HIGH SCHOOL
CLASS X
Half-Yearly Examination, 2008 09
Commercial Studies
Time: 2 hours Full Marks: 80
Answers must be written in the script/s provided. You will not be allowed to write during the
first 15 minutes. This time must be spent in reading the Question Paper. The time given at
the head of this Paper is the time allowed for writing answers.
This Paper is divided into two sections.
Attempt all questions of Section A and any four questions of Section B.
Maximum marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ].
SECTION A (40 marks)
Answer all the questions. Be as brief as possible.
Question No 1
Distinguish between:
(a) Gratuity and Provident Fund [2]
(b) Direct Taxes and Indirect Taxes [2]
(c) Stakeholders and Customers [2]
(d) Internal Recruitment and External Recruitment [2]
(e) Strike and Lockout [2]
Question No 2
(a) State any two expectations of the employees from a business concern. [2]
(b) Name the companies to which the Companies Act, 1956, does not apply. [2]
(c) Define the term Fair Trade. [2]
(d) Why was the Consumer Protection Act passed? [2]
(e) Fixed assets are recorded at the original cost less depreciation.
Name and explain the accounting principle underlying the above statement. [2]
Question No 3
(a) State the titles of the following Accounting Standards:
(i) AS 2 (ii) AS 3 (iii) AS 6 (iv) AS 10 [2]
(b) Explain any one shortcoming of the Accounting Standards in India. [2]
(c) What is meant by Trade Mark? [2]
(d) Give two objectives of industrial relations. [2]
(e) What do you understand by merit grading? In what context is it used? [2]
( 2 )
Question No 4
(a) How does the Patents Act benefit society? [2]
(b) How are restrictive trade practices regulated? [2]
(c) Who can file a complaint under the Consumer Protection Act, 1986? [2]
(d) Mention any four civil and political rights. [2]
(e) What do you mean by Group Insurance? [2]
SECTION B (40 marks)
Answer any four questions.
Question No 5
(a) Who are the internal stakeholders of a business organization? Explain the nature of
their stakes in the business. [5]
(b) Discuss the relevance of the Indian Companies Act, 1956. [5]
Question No 6
(a) Explain in brief the code of conduct for commercial advertising. [5]
(b) Describe any five agreements relating to the restrictive trade practices which can be
registered under the MRTP Act. [5]
Question No 7
(a) Discuss the various rights of the consumers as provided for by the Consumer
Protection Act, 1986. [5]
(b) What are the salient provisions of the Consumer Protection Act pertaining to the
National Commission? [5]
Question No 8
(a) Discuss briefly the functions of the National Human Rights Commission. [5]
(b) Mr. S.K. Mitra, a manager in a Public Limited Company, is turning sixty and is about to
retire from the organization after long and dedicated service. In this context, answer
the following:
(i) Name any two Acts pertaining to Mr. S.K. Mitras retirement. [1]
(ii) Discuss the reasons why these two Acts need to be enforced in organizations.
[4]
Question No 9
(a) Describe any five canons of taxation. [5]
(b) Explain clearly the Money Measurement Concept. [5]
Question No 10
(a) Describe any five tests designed for the selection of the employees in an
organization. [5]
(b) Discuss any five problems faced by the Trade Unions in India. [5]
GARDEN HIGH SCHOOL
CLASS X
Half-Yearly Examination, 2008 09
Computer Applications (Theory)
Time: 2 hours Full Marks: 100
Answers must be written in the script/s provided. You will not be allowed to write during the
first 15 minutes. This time must be spent in reading the Question Paper. The time given at
the head of this Paper is the time allowed for writing answers.
This Paper is divided into two sections.
Attempt all questions of Section A and any four of Section B.
Maximum marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ].
SECTION A (40 marks)
Answer all the questions.
Question No 1
(a) Differentiate between Inheritance and Polymorphism. [2]
(b) What is a Wrapper class? Give an example. [2]
(c) Write the results of the following expressions: [3]
(i) b+ = (a/2

3)

a++ 4+++a/2;
System.out.print (a+ +b);
where a =4 and b =3
(ii) c = (! (true)) ? ++c

2 : c++;
where c =20
(iii) char a[ ] = {a, B, Z, z };
int x = a [ 2 ] %3;
char y = (char) (x+65);
System.out.print(y);
(d) What are literals in J ava? Name all the integer literals. [3]
Question No 2
(a) What is meant by implicit and explicit type conversion? [2]
(b) Define an array and state its uses. [2]
(c) Differentiate between compareTo( ) and equals( ) methods. [2]
(d) Write the J ava expression for the following: [2]
2x 1
e a tan sina +


Question No 3
(a) What is the use of a try and a catch block? [2]
(b) Explain with examples the purpose of: [2]
(i) return statement
(ii) static keyword
(c) Compare the efficiency of StringBuffer to that of String. [2]
( 2 )
(d) What do the following functions return: [4]
String x =COMPUTER ;
String y =APPLICATIONS ;
(i) System.out.println (x +y);
(ii) System.out.println (x.equals(y));
(iii) System.out.println (y.indexOf(I, 7);
(iv) System.out.println (y.replace(P, F);
Question No 4
(a) What do you mean by Constructor Overloading? [2]
(b) What is a Friendly access modifier? [1]
(c) The following program prints the integer code (ASCII code) of a character.
Fill in the blanks numbered 1 to 4, so that the program works correctly. [4]
class Fill
{ void convert (char c)
{ 1 d =c ;
System.out.println(d) ;
}
public static void funct( )
{ 2 obj = 3 Fill ( ) ;
Char a =A ;
4 ;
}}
(d) Write the following code, using the if-else if construct. State the output if ch =35. [3]
Switch(ch)
{ case 15 :
case 25 :
case 35 : a =5 ;
case 45 : a =10 ;
break ; }
System.out.println(a);
(e) What is the following method computing? [2]
public static void compute(int n)
{ int flag =0 ;
for (int i =3 ; i <n ; i++)
{
for (int j =2 ; j <i ; ++j)
{
if (i % j ==0) flag =1 ;
}
if (flag ==0)
System.out.println(i) ;
}
}
SECTION B (60 marks)
Answer any four questions.
The answers in this Section should consist of the programs in either Blue J environment or any
program environment with Java as the base. Each program should be written, using Variable
Description/Mnemonic Codes such that the logic of the program is clearly depicted.
Flow-charts and algorithms are not required.
Question No 5
Define a class Trigonometry containing the methods sumSeries( ) to compute the result of
the series: [15]
1)! (n
x
....
5!
x
4!
x
3!
x
1
n 4 3 2
+
+
and dispSeries( ) to display the series:
.
4
.
44
.
444
.
4444
...
N terms
Question No 6
Write a program to input ten integers in an array and find the minimum and maximum
values along with the sum of the given elements. Reverse the array and store it in the
same array. [15]
.
Question No 7
Write a menu-driven program to perform the following functions as per the users choice:
[15]
(a) Check for Perfect Number (eg. 6 =1+2+3 i.e. sum of the factors (except the number
itself) is equal to the number.
(b) Check for Armstrong Number (eg. 153 =1
3
+5
3
+3
3
).
Question No 8
Write a program to print the following pattern: [15]
Input =LOTUS
Output =
Question No 9
Design a class Meter and a function Bill that generates the bill of customers as per the
following rates: [15]
Rs 20 for the first kilometer
Rs 10 per km for the next 5 kms
Rs 12 per km for the next 10 kms
Rs 15 per km beyond 16 kms
The main program should create an object of the class and invoke the functions to print the
output in the following format:
Customers Name:
Kilometers :
Bill Amount :
( 3 )
L O T U S
L O T U
L O T
L O
L
L
L O
L O T
L O T U
( 4 )
Question No 10
Write a menu-driven program to perform the following functions: [15]
(a) Check if the string is a palindrome or not.
(b) Display the number of times each vowel occurs in the string.
(eg. a occurs 2 times)
e
.
.
.
occurs 3 times)
Input the string and the option chosen by the user.
GARDEN HIGH SCHOOL
CLASS X
Half-Yearly Examination, 2008 09
Economic Applications
Time: 2 hours Full Marks: 100
Answers must be written in the script/s provided. You will not be allowed to write during the
first 15 minutes. This time must be spent in reading the Question Paper. The time given at
the head of this Paper is the time allowed for writing answers.
This Paper is divided into two sections.
Attempt all questions of Section A and any four of Section B.
Maximum marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ].
SECTION A (40 marks)
Attempt all the questions.
Question No 1
(a) State two features of Monopsony. [2]
(b) What effect does inflation have on income distribution? [2]
(c) How is a division of labour advantageous to society? [2]
(d) Mention any two types of loans given by commercial banks. [2]
(e) Draw graphs to depict each of the following: [2]
(i) A movement on the demand curve when both price and quantity change.
(ii) A change in the supply curve when price remains constant but quantity supplied
decreases.
Question No 2
(a) Why do bathing soaps have different shapes, colours, fragrances and sizes? [2]
(b) Differentiate, giving suitable examples, between derived demand and composite
demand. [2]
(c) A 5% fall in the price of a commodity causes the demand for it to rise by 12%. Find
the price elasticity of the demand. Is the demand elastic or inelastic? [2]
(d) Distinguish between fiscal policy and monetary policy. [2]
(e) Give two reasons for the privatization of public sector units in India. [2]
Question No 3
(a) Distinguish between standard money and bank money. [2]
(b) State whether the demand for the following commodities is elastic or inelastic: [2]
(i) Luxury cars (iii) Salt
(ii) Life-saving drugs (iv) English textbook of Class X
(c) Distinguish between a tax and a subsidy. [2]
( 2 )
(d) What is the impact of reduction in Cash Reserve Ratio on loanable funds? [2]
(e) Differentiate between current deposits and fixed deposits. [2]
Question No 4
(a) In J anuary 2002, the price of gold nearly tripled. Yet, as the price of gold rose, its sale
too increased. Does this mean that the demand curve for gold slopes upward?
J ustify your answer. [2]
(b) An entrepreneur can use either capital or labour in the production process. Out of the
options A, B, C, and D given below, which two would he choose if he had to replace
labour with capital? J ustify your answer. [2]
(c) Differentiate between capital and wealth. Which of the two has a direct impact on an
economy? J ustify your answer. [2]
(d) Mention any two risks faced by an entrepreneur. [2]
(e) How can the state help in generating income in an economy? [2]
SECTION B (60 marks)
Attempt any four questions.
Question No 5
(a) Define a perfectly competitive market. Discuss three differences between a perfectly
competitive market and a monopoly. [7]
(b) Mention and explain four factors that lead to monopoly. [8]
Question No 6
(a) Define price elasticity of demand. With the help of suitable diagrams, explain the arc
and point elasticity methods of measuring it. [7]
(b) Distinguish between fixed capital and circulating capital.
A list of goods is given below. Classify them, with reasons, as fixed or circulating: [8]
(i) Machines
(ii) Office furniture
(iii) Raw materials
(iv) Fuel
Options Price of Capital Price of Labour
A Constant Falling
B Falling Rising
C Rising Constant
D Falling Falling
Question No 7
(a) Differentiate between a central bank and commercial banks. Explain any three
important functions of commercial banks. [7]
(b) Explain the Law of Demand with the help of a demand schedule and a demand curve.
State its two assumptions and two exceptions. [8]
Question No 8
(a) Explain the main characteristics of land as a factor of production. [7]
(b) Give four causes for the low efficiency of labour in India and suggest measures to
improve it. [8]
Question No 9
(a) Discuss the role played by the public sector in India. [5]
(b) Explain the concept of money. Discuss the various functions of money in a modern
economy. [10]
Question No 10
(a) Read the extract from the Hindustan Times, dated 4 November 2003, given below
and answer the questions that follow:
The Reserve Bank of India has left the bank rate and repo rate unchanged at 6 per
cent and 4.5 per cent respectively in its mid-term review of the monetary and credit
policy for 2003-04. In view of easy liquidity conditions, the apex bank has also kept
the cash reserve ratio (CRR) unchanged at 4.5 per cent.
Y. Venugopal Reddy, who started off his 5-year term as RBI Governor in September,
has raised the GDP forecast from 6.5 to 7.0 per cent with an upward bias. The RBI
had estimated the GDP to grow at 6 per cent in the fiscal. Similarly, the RBI has
projected alower inflation of 4 to 4.5 per cent with a possible downward bias against
the earlier projection of 55.5 per cent.
(i) What is bank rate? [1]
(ii) Why has the RBI kept the bank rate unchanged? [2]
(iii) Is this desirable for the Indian economy? [2]
(b) Why is there a need to control inflation? [10]
( 3 )
GARDEN HIGH SCHOOL
CLASS X
Half-Yearly Examination, 2008 09
Economics
Time: 2 hours Full Marks: 80
Answers must be written in the script/s provided. You will not be allowed to write during the
first 15 minutes. This time must be spent in reading the Question Paper. The time given at
the head of this Paper is the time allowed for writing answers.
This Paper is divided into two sections.
Attempt all the questions of Section A and any four of Section B.
Maximum marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ].
SECTION A (40 marks)
Attempt all the questions.
Question No 1
(a) Mention two ways in which a worker benefits from a division of labour. [2]
(b) Distinguish between primary deposits and derivative deposits. [2]
(c) State two main functions of an entrepreneur. [2]
(d) Mention any two objectives of the 10th 5-year Plan. [2]
(e) State the impact of each of the following changes on the demand curve of a commodity:
[2]
(i) An increase in the income of a consumer
(ii) A rise in the price of a commodity
(iii) An increase in the supply of a substitute commodity
(iv) An increase in the price of a complementary commodity
Question No 2
(a) Explain:
(i) Form utility
(ii) Place utility [2]
(b) State two differences between public finance and private finance. [2]
(c) What are substitute goods? [2]
(d) The rate of inflation in the Indian economy during the year 2008 is estimated at 6.5%.
The rate of inflation during the year 2007 was 7.5%. Does it mean that the general
price level has come down during 2008? [2]
(e) State any two major objectives of Indian planning. [2]
( 2 )
Question No 3
(a) Which of the following is considered as labour in economics? [2]
(i) The judgement given by a judge in a court.
(ii) The participation of a student in the annual athletic meet of a college.
(b) How can direct taxes help in fostering social consciousness and equality in society? [2]
(c) Explain the term: Plan Holiday. Give an example. [2]
(d) Differentiate between revenue expenditure and capital expenditure of the Government
of India. [2]
(e) On the basis of the supply schedule given in the table below prepare a market supply
schedule: [2]
Question No 4
(a) Suggest two measures for increasing the rate of capital formation in India. [2]
(b) Identify, giving reasons, the type of elasticity when: [2]
(i) price falls, but total expenditure increases.
(ii) price rises, and total expenditure rises.
(c) State two objectives of the nationalization of banks. [2]
(d) Distinguish between progressive taxation and proportional taxation. [2]
(e) Define moral-suasion. [2]
SECTION B (40 marks)
Attempt any four questions.
Question No 5
(a) Mention any five factors that affect the price elasticity of demand. [5]
(b) Distinguish between demand-pull inflation and cost-push inflation. Explain the effect
of inflation on debtors and creditors. [5]
Price
(Rs per unit)
Quantity supplied by individual firms
Market supply
schedule
(units)
A B C
5 10 16 20
8 15 20 24
10 18 24 30
12 20 28 36
Question No 6
(a) State and explain the difficulties of the barter system. [5]
(b) Differentiate between direct and indirect taxes. Mention two merits and two demerits
of direct taxes. [5]
Question No 7
(a) Explain five important functions of commercial banks. [5]
(b) Classify, with reasons, the following taxes into direct and indirect taxes: [5]
(i) House Tax
(ii) Excise duty
(iii) Income Tax
(iv) Passenger Tax
(v) Sales Tax
Question No 8
(a) Give the main features of planning in India. [5]
(b) Distinguish between qualitative and quantitative measures of credit control. Briefly
explain the quantitative credit control policy of the central bank. [5]
Question No 9
(a) How does land differ from capital? Mention three factors which affect the productivity
of land? [5]
(b) Explain what is meant by the non-tax revenue of a government. [5]
Question No 10
(a) Explain briefly the effect of public debt on the Indian economy. [5]
(b) Mention, from the point of view of a worker, five demerits of a division of labour. [5]
( 3 )
GARDEN HIGH SCHOOL
CLASS X
Half-Yearly Examination, 2008 09
English Language
Time: 2 hours Full Marks: 80
Answers must be written in the script/s provided. You will not be allowed to write during the
first 15 minutes. This time must be spent in reading the Question Paper. The time given at
the head of this Paper is the time allowed for writing answers.
Attempt all four questions.
Maximum marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ].
Question No 1 25
(Do not spend more than 35 minutes on this question.)
Write a composition (350 400 words) on any one of the following:
(a) Cinema both entertains and educates the masses. Discuss. Conclude your essay
with your view, either for or against the statement.
(b) Imagine a situation in which a character from your favourite book comes alive. Write
an imaginary account of a day spent with this character.
(c) In India, family values have always been strong. Discuss the changes, both good and
bad, that have resulted from the breaking up of the traditional joint family.
(d) Write an original short story incorporating the line: This is what happens when perfectly
good advice is not taken!
(e) Study the picture given below. Write a story or a description or an account based on
what it suggests to you. There should be a clear connection between the picture and
your composition.
( 2 )
Question No 2 10
(Do not spend more than 20 minutes on this question.)
Answer any one of the following:
(a) A friend has written to ask if you would like to go on a holiday to the seaside with him/
her. Write a letter to your friend agreeing to spend the holiday together. Write why you
think his/her plan is not a particularly good one and suggest an alternate way of spending
the vacation.
(b) Write a letter to the Editor of a newspaper or magazine expressing your views on the
menace of reckless driving.
Question No 3 25
Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow:
It was eleven oclock on Tuesday evening. The three of us were sitting around in the living
room after supper. I had just opened another bottle and was pouring it out when I heard a
faint rumbling noise. At that time, I didnt pay much attention to it. Even when the noise got
louder and the windows began to rattle I wasnt particularly concerned. In fact, I was mildly
annoyed. I assumed it was an unusually heavy lorry coming up the road and I was just
about to come out with a few choice expletives directed at vehicles like this when the cups
in the kitchen and the jars on the shelf began to rattle as well.
I dont remember which one of us was the first to realize it was an earthquake. At any
rate, I had been disabused of the idea that it was just another lorry. By this time everything
inside the flat was shaking, rattling or wobbling, including the walls, ceiling and floor. It felt as
if some awful giant was venting his anger by holding the building and giving it a good shake.
For a moment, we sat motionless, transfixed with horror, shock or both. Then we all
sprang to our feet, with what purpose I cant really say. Not that it did much good anyway, as
we were all promptly thrown back into our seats. I had a terrible feeling of helplessness.
At a second attempt, we managed to stay on our feet and started making for the open
door out on to the balcony. When we got there we saw that there had been a power cut and
the whole city had been plunged into darkness. By this time the shaking had stopped and
everything seemed curiously still and quiet. For a moment it seemed as if a hand had
passed over the city and extinguished it like a candle. Although it had seemed like hours, the
quake had only lasted ten seconds or so.
Gradually, the sounds of life began again horns tooting, windows opening, voices. I
dont remember any screaming or shouting. Everything was strangely muted, disturbed
rather than desperate.
After a while, we went back into the house. There was no obvious damage. A few
books had fallen out of the shelves and the only thing broken was an egg cup. As we
listened for news on the radio over the next few hours, we realized we had been very lucky.
People nearby had had televisions and stereos smashed, and several villages outside the
city had been virtually flattened. Most people spent that night outside. Some people had to
spend weeks outside because their homes had been damaged.
We didnt. We lived at the top of a building, which is the safest place to be in an
earthquake, so we stayed put. At three oclock we even went to bed, which is where we
were when the first big aftershock came about two hours later.
It was quite a night.
(a) Four words/phrases are given below. Give the meaning of each as used in the passage.
One-word answers or short phrases will be accepted. [4]
(i) disabused (ii) venting his anger (iii) muted (iv) virtually flattened
(b) Answer the following questions briefly in your own words:
(i) What was the first sign of the earthquake? What was the writers reaction to the
sign? Why? [3]
(ii) When did the writer realize that the disturbance was an earthquake? [2]
(iii) Apart from the description of the shaking, what indicates that the earthquake was
quite strong? [2]
(iv) How much damage had the earthquake caused? [2]
(v) Why did the writer not go down to the street? [2]
(c) In not more than 60 words of your own, describe the signs and impact of the earthquake.
Give your summary a title. J ustify the title. [8 +2 =10]
Question No 4
(a) In the following passage, fill in each of the numbered blanks with the correct form of
the word given in brackets. Do not copy the passage, but write in correct serial order
the word or phrase appropriate to the blank space. 4
Rajat (1) _________ (promise) his mother that he (2) _________ (go) to change a lot
this year. He (3) _________ (stop) watching the television serials he (4) _________
(waste) time on last year and (5) _________ (avoid) playing too many games. He (6)
_________ (decide) to study hard and (7) _________ (do) well in the ICSE. His mother
(8) _________ (be) relieved and happy.
( 3 )
( 4 )
(b) Fill in each blank with a suitable word: 4
(i) We decided to dispose ________ our old car.
(ii) Where did you come ________ this word?
(iii) Shouvik stood ________ the river and watched the fishing-boats.
(iv) Indian music is appreciated all ________ the world.
(v) Rishi congratulated us ________ our success.
(vi) There are no taxis available ________ this hour.
(vii) He wanted to know if his uncle was angry ________ him.
(viii) It had been a long time ________ Sara had visited her sister.
(c) J oin each of the following pairs of sentences to make one complete sentence without
using and, but, or so. 4
(i) I warned you not to eat that fruit. You did not bother to listen.
(ii) You must apologize. You will not be allowed to sit at this table.
(iii) The new teacher is young. He is good-looking.
(iv) Susan did her best. Everybody thinks so.
(d) Rewrite the following sentences according to the instruction given after each. You
may make other changes if necessary, but do not change the meaning of any sentence.
8
(i) I was grateful to him because he was kind.
(Begin: His .....)
(ii) I am sorry we didnt stick to the old currency.
(Begin: How I wish .....)
(iii) I have never seen such a big apple.
(Begin: This apple is .....)
(iv) But for your laziness you would have been the best pupil in your class.
(Begin: If .....)
(v) Nobody told us about the change in programme.
(Begin: We .....)
(vi) As soon as the taxi arrived, we left for the station.
(Begin: No sooner .....)
(vii) I had lost all my money as well as my friends address.
(Begin: Not only .....)
(viii) There were many errors in his composition.
(Begin: His composition .....)
GARDEN HIGH SCHOOL
CLASS X
Half-Yearly Examination, 2008 09
English Literature
Time: 2 hours Full Marks: 80
Answers must be written in the script/s provided. You will not be allowed to write during the
first 15 minutes. This time must be spent in reading the Question Paper. The time given at
the head of this Paper is the time allowed for writing answers.
This Paper is divided into three sections.
You must answer five questions in all, choosing at least one from each of the Sections A, B,
and C. Maximum marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ].
SECTION A
(Shakespeare: Julius Caesar)
Question No 1
Cassius: This hill is far enough. Look, look, Titinius;
Are those my tents where I perceive the fire?
Titinius: They are, my lord.
Cassius: Titinius, if thou lovst me,
Mount thou my horse, and hide thy spurs in him,
Till he have brought thee up to yonder troops
And here again; that I may rest assurd
Whether yond troops are friend or enemy.
Titinius: I will be here again, even with a thought.
(a) Where are the speakers at this point of time? Explain what Titinius means by the
phrase even with a thought. When does Cassius first mention Titinius name in the
play? [3]
(b) Who else is there with Cassius? Narrate the circumstances in which the two had
first met. [3]
(c) What does Cassius ask this other person to do immediately after Titinius leaves?
What, according to Cassius, is special about this day? [3]
(d) Summarize the eyewitness account that Cassius receives concerning Titinius. [4]
(e) What conclusion does Cassius arrive at from what he hears? How does it become
clear later that this conclusion was quite wrong? [3]
( 2 )
Question No 2
Antony: Therefore I took your hands, but was indeed
Swayd from the point by looking down on Caesar.
Friends am I with you all, and love you all,
Upon this hope, that you shall give me reasons
Why and wherein Caesar was dangerous.
Brutus: Or else were this a savage spectacle.
Our reasons are so full of good regard
That were you, Antony, the son of Caesar,
You should be satisfied.
(a) Whose hand has Antony shaken last of all? After shaking hands with those who
have killed Caesar, what does he fear they might consider him to be? [3]
(b) What reasons does Brutus give subsequently to justify Caesars murder. [3]
(c) Antony will go on to make another request. What is it? [3]
(d) Who does not want the request to be granted, and why? [3]
(e) Refer to two other occasions in the play when this persons suggestions are overruled.
[4]
SECTION B
(Whispers of Immortality)
Question No 3
Lives of great men all remind us
We can make our lives sublime,
And, departing, leave behind us
Footprints on the sands of time.
Footprints, that perhaps another,
Sailing oer lifes solemn main,
A forlom and shipwrecked brother,
Seeing, shall take heart again.
(a) Explain, naming the figure of speech used: footprints on the sands of time. [3]
(b) What has the poet already said about the Past, Present and Future? [3]
(c) Elsewhere, the poet echoes an oft-quoted Biblical saying. Explain the context
in which he does so. [4]
(d) What is a psalm? In what sense, is the poem, from which the above extract
is taken, a psalm? [3]
(e) What does the poet say in conclusion? [3]
( 3 )
Question No 4
Alas! for this gray shadow, once a man
So glorious in his beauty and thy choice,
Who madest him thy chosen, that he seemd
To his great heart none other than a God!
I askd thee, Give me immortality.
Then didst thou grant mine asking with a smile,......
(a) Name the speaker and the person addressed. To whom does the speaker compare
the person who granted what the speaker asked for? [3]
(b) Who, according to the speaker, resented the granting of the wish; and how was this
resentment expressed? [3]
(c) The speaker has called himself a shadow earlier in the poem as well. How has he
described himself on that occasion? [3]
(d) The poem begins with a number of examples of the normal order of flux and
impermanence. Mention any three of them. [3]
(e) What reasons does the speaker give for urging take back thy gift? [4]
SECTION C
(Three Men in a Boat)
Question No 5
It was a glorious day, and the lock was crowded; and, as is a common practice up the
river, a speculative photographer was taking a picture of us all as we lay upon the rising
waters.
(a) Describe how George posed for the photographer. [3]
(b) What did the author do when he realized that his photograph was being taken? [3]
(c) What was the authors reaction when someone cried, Hi! Look at your nose? [2]
(d) Why were the onlookers crying out to the three men in the boat? What did the men
in the boat do when they realized what was happening? [4]
(e) Describe the photograph that was taken. Why did the owner of the steam-launch
refuse to buy a copy of the photograph? [3 +1]
Question No 6
It rather fascinated me, that trout; it was such a monstrous fish. In fact, at first glance,
I thought it was a cod!
What different stories were the author and his friends told about the trout? What ultimately
happened to the trout? [16]
GARDEN HIGH SCHOOL
CLASS X
Half-Yearly Examination, 2008 09
Environmental Education
Time: 2 hours Full Marks: 80
Answers must be written in the script/s provided. You will not be allowed to write during the
first 15 minutes. This time must be spent in reading the Question Paper. The time given at
the head of this Paper is the time allowed for writing answers.
This Paper is divided into two sections.
Attempt all questions of Section A and any four of Section B.
Maximum marks for questions or parts of a question are given in brackets [ ].
SECTION A (40 marks)
Answer all the questions.
Question No 1
(a) What is desertification? [2]
(b) Mention any two ways in which solid waste can be disposed of. [2]
(c) Give two advantages of hydroelectricity. [2]
(d) What is a watershed? What does watershed management involve? [2]
(e) Define air pollution. [2]
Question No 2
(a) Why has marine productivity declined? [2]
(b) What are sacred groves? [2]
(c) Differentiate between primary and secondary air pollutants. [2]
(d) State any two effects of acid rain on agriculture. [2]
(e) What is biopiracy? [2]
Question No 3
(a) What is an El Nino? How does an El Nino bring about a climate change? [2]
(b) What is farmyard manure? [2]
(c) Mention any two ways in which social forestry is useful to us. [2]
(d) What are the uses of a scrubber? [2]
(e) Give two direct consequences of ozone depletion. [2]
( 2 )
Question No 4
(a) What is the Beej Bachao Andolan? What are its objectives? [2]
(b) What causes displacement of people? [2]
(c) How is drought caused? Give any two measures to control drought. [2]
(d) How does CO
2
act as a greenhouse gas? [2]
(e) What is a coral reef? [2]
SECTION B (40 marks)
Answer any four questions.
Question No 5
(a) Discuss any two methods of rainwater harvesting. [4]
(b) Explain any three causes and three consequences of eutrophication. [6]
Question No 6
(a) How are the practices of the Warli tribe relevant in conserving the environment in
todays world? [4]
(b) Write short notes on: [6]
(i) The effects of biomagnification
(ii) J oint Forest Management
Question No 7
(a) How does agricultural waste pollute water? [4]
(b) Discuss any three effects of an oil slick. [6]
Question No 8
(a) What causes a tsunami? [4]
(b) List the effects of noise pollution on health. [6]
Question No 9
(a) What do you understand by the term ecofriendly technology? [4]
(b) Describe disaster mitigation techniques. [6]
Question No 10
(a) What are the important features of the Wildlife Protection Act? [4]
(b) Differentiate between development and sustainable development. [6]
GARDEN HIGH SCHOOL
CLASS X
Half-Yearly Examination, 2008 09
Geography
Time: 2 hours Full Marks: 80
Answers must be written in the script/s provided. You will not be allowed to write during the
first 15 minutes. This time must be spent in reading the Question Paper. The time given at
the head of this Paper is the time allowed for writing answers.
Attempt seven questions in all. Part I is compulsory. All questions of Part I are to be
attempted. A total of five questions are to be attempted from Part II.
Maximum marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ].
PART I (30 marks)
Answer all the questions.
Question No 1
Study the extract of the Survey of India map sheet no 45D/10 and answer the following:
24
14
26 15
45 D/10
(a) What do the figure 1 : 50000 printed below the map extract mean? [1]
(b) What is the general direction of flow of the Sipu Nadi given in the map extract?
Give one reason to support your answer. [1]
(c) Give a six-figure grid reference for the peak of the Bhuni Magri hill. [1]
(d) Anadro is a better developed settlement than Gulabganj.
Give two reasons to justify the statement. [2]
(e) Account for the necessity of fireline in the jungle area of the given map extract. [1]
(f) In what compass direction does the village Pamera lie in respect of Gulabganj?
How many km away is Pamera (169224) from Gulabganj (189205)? [2]
(g) What is the drianage pattern in grid square 2517? [1]
(h) How does the road from Gulabganj to Sirori cross the Sipu Nadi, and the road from
Gulabganj to Pamera cross the intervening canal? [2]
(i) What does 20r in grid square 1622 mean? [1]
(j) On which bank of the Sipu Nadi is Malgaon situated. What is the social significance
of this village? [2]
( 2 )
(k) (i) Is the reservoir present in the map artificial or natural? Give a reason for your
answer. [1]
(ii) State two important means of irrigation in this region. What inference do you
draw about the main occupation of the people in this region? [2]
(l) What kind of settlement is Tokra? [1]
(m) Why is the water in the well in grid square 1621 not suitable for drinking? [1]
(n) Calculate the area of the given extract? [1]
Question No 2
On the outline map of South Asia provided: 10 1 =10
(a) Mark and label the Himalayas.
(b) Mark and name the administrative capital of India.
(c) Mark and label the Malabar coast.
(d) Mark the longitude from which India derives its standard time.
(e) Shade the Gulf of Kachchh.
(f) Mark and label the River Yamuna.
(g) Mark and name the Palk Strait.
(h) Mark and name a place where bajra is found north of the Tropic of Cancer.
(i) Shade a region where black soil is found.
(j) Mark and label the River Krishna.
PART II (50 marks)
Answer any five questions.
Question No 3
(a) With reference to the River Indus, answer the following questions:
(i) Where is its source? [1]
(ii) State two ways in which the River Indus is useful to the people of Pakistan. [2]
(b) Why is Bangladesh prone to floods? How are the floods beneficial to the people of
the country? [2]
(c) State any two differences between the Western and Eastern Himalayas. [1]
(d) Mention a difference between the Deccan Plateau and the Baluchistan Plateau of
South Asia. [1]
(e) How have the relief and climate of Nepal affected the basic occupations of the people
of that country? [2]
(f) Give two reasons why the Arabian Sea branch of monsoon winds is more powerful
than the Bay of Bengal branch. [1]
Question No 4
(a) What is the full form of SAARC? [1]
(b) Give two reasons justifying the need to include Myanmar and Afghanistan as an
extension of SAARC countries. [2]
(c) Describe the course of the River Ganga. [2]
(d) Name the two most important peaks found in the Himadri. Name the important glaciers
found in the Himadri. What are these glaciers important for? [1 +1 +1]
(e) What is the latitudinal and longitudinal extent of Pakistan? [2]
Question No 5
(a) Why does Baluchistan receive scanty rainfall? [1]
(b) Give reasons:
(i) Bikanir in Western Rajasthan gets little rain. [1]
(ii) Kerala and Kanyakumari are the first to see the monsoon appear and the last
to see its retreat. [1]
(iii) Vishakapatnam gets a heavier rainfall than Hyderabad. [1]
(c) Study the data provided below and answer the questions that follow:

Month J an Feb Mar Apr May J un J ul Aug S
Stn A
Temp (
O
C) 12 15 28 35 42 38 35 32 2
Rf (cm) 18 15 8 0.6 0.8 1 0
Stn B
Temp (
O
C) 20 23 25 28 30 28 25.5 25.5 23
Rf (cm) 18 15 6 0.5 0
(i) Name the causes of winter rain at both the stations. Give reasons to support
your answer. [2 +2]
(ii) Calculate the annual range of temperature in Station A. [1]
(iii) What is the effect of winter rain at both the stations? [1]
Question No 6
(a) Give two reasons why the cultivation of pulses is important. [2]
(b) Why are millets called dry crops? Name any two millets. [1 + +]
(c) What is transplantation of rice? [2]
(d) State two characteristics of J apanese method of rice cultivation. [1]
(e) What are the two varieties of wheat? What kind of temperature and rainfall favours
its cultivation. [1 +1 +1]
( 3 )
Question No 7
(a) How does the formation of the soil of the Ganga-Yamuna plain differ from that of
Central Maharashtra? [1]
(b) How is red soil formed? Why is this soil agriculturally not so important? [1 +1]
(c) Name two important agents of erosion. For each, state one method of controlling the
effect. [1 +1]
(d) Why is laterite soil not suitable for the cultivation of crops? Mention two states in India
where this soil is found? [1 +1]
(e) What are the geographical requirements of tea? [3]
Question No 8
(a) Distinguish between subsistence farming and commercial farming. [1 +1]
(b) State two characteristics of plantation agriculture. [2]
(c) Why is the average productivity of crops low in India compared to that in developed
countries? Give three reasons. [3]
(d) What is green revolution? Mention any four programs introduced by the Government
of India which brought about the Green Revolution in the country. [1 +2]
Question No 9
(a) What is oilcake? [1]
(b) (i) Which oilseed is used as a rotational crop, and why? [2]
(ii) State any two uses of this oilseed. [1]
(c) Name one oilseed the oilcake of which is edible, and one oilseed the oilcake of which
is inedible.
[ +]
(d) What temperature helps to grow coconut trees?. State any two uses of coconut.
Mention any one state where it is grown. [1 +1 +1]
(e) State any two importance of oilseeds. [2]
( 4 )
GARDEN HIGH SCHOOL
CLASS X
Half-Yearly Examination, 2008 09
Hindi
Time: 3 hours Full Marks: 80
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( 5 )
GARDEN HIGH SCHOOL
CLASS X
Half-Yearly Examination, 2008 09
History and Civics
Time: 2 hours Full Marks: 80
Answers must be written in the script/s provided. You will not be allowed to write during the
first 15 minutes. This time must be spent in reading the Question Paper. The time given at
the head of this Paper is the time allowed for writing answers.
Attempt all questions of Part I (Compulsory).
A total of five questions has to be answered from Part II.
PART I (30 marks)
Answer all the questions.
Question No 1 10 1 =10
(a) How are the members of the Rajya Sabha elected?
(b) What do you understand by the term Quorum?
(c) State two judicial functions of the President of India.
(d) Name a bill that cannot be introduced in the Rajya Sabha.
(e) What is an Ordinance?
(f) State any one administrative function of the Speaker of a state legislature.
(g) Mention one important function of the Vice-President of India.
(h) What is meant by the term Question Hour as used in the Indian Parliament?
(i) What is meant by the term Adjournment Motion?
(j) Who is the ex-officio Chairman of the Council of Ministers?
Question No 2
Answer briefly: 10 2 =20
(a) State two factors responsible for the growth of Nationalism in India.
(b) Mention any two objectives of the formation of the Indian National Congress in 1885.
(c) Which conflict between Germany and Poland led to World War II?
(d) State any two similarities between Nazism and Fascism.
(e) State any two objectives of the Muslim League.
(f) Name the countries that constituted the Allied Powers.
(g) Why did America drop atom bombs on Hiroshima and Nagasaki?
( 2 )
(h) State any two functions of UNICEF.
(i) When was WHO established and where is its headquarters located?
(j) Mention two functions of UNESCO.
PART II (50 marks)
Section A
Answer any two questions. 2 10 =20
Question No 3
(a) What are the financial powers of the Union Parliament? [4]
(b) Mention three circumstances in which the Parliament can enact laws on subjects
included in the State list. [4]
(c) What powers does the Union Parliament have to legislate on subjects included in
both the Union list and the Concurrent list? [2]
Question No 4
The Constitution clearly recognizes the supremacy of the Lok Sabha over the Rajya Sabha.
In the context of the above statement, write notes on the following:
(a) Legislative powers of the Lok Sabha regarding money bills [3]
(b) Control of the Lok Sabha over the executive [4]
(c) Legislative powers of the Lok Sabha regarding ordinary bills [3]
Question No 5
(a) Mention any three executive powers of the Prime Minister of India. [3]
(b) State three differences between the Cabinet and the Council of Ministers in the
Central Executive. [3]
(c) Name the three categories of ministers in the Union Council of Ministers. How are
they different from one another? [4]
Section B
Answer any three questions. 3 10 =30
Question No 6
(a) What action did Lord Curzon take to check the growth of nationalism in Bengal? How
did he justify it? [3]
(b) How did the people of Bengal react? [3]
(c) What was the aim and programme of the movement that followed and helped to
strengthen the National Movement? [4]
( 3 )
Question No 7
The world has seen the damages caused by the two World Wars. The aim of the United
Nations Organization is to save succeeding generations from the scourge of another war.
In this context, answer the following questions:
(a) Explain any three functions of the General Assembly. [3]
(b) Discuss the role of the Security Council in maintaining world peace. [3]
(c) What is the composition of the International Court of J ustice? [2]
(d) Mention two important functions of WHO. [2]
Question No 8
The First World War was fought to make the world safe for democracy. But the unsettled
economic and political conditions paved the way to dictatorship in Italy and Germany.
In this context, explain:
(a) Any three circumstances that led to the rise of fascism in Italy. [3]
(b) Any three domestic policies of Hitler. [3]
(c) Any four foreign policies of Hitler which were responsible for the outbreak of World
War II. [4]
Question No 9
(a) Mention four ideological tenets of Gandhiji. [4]
(b) What was the reason behind the launching of the Khilafat movement in India? Why
were the Khilafat and Non-Cooperation movements merged in 1920? [4]
(c) Why was the Non-Cooperation movement withdrawn? How did this decision lead to
the formation of the Swaraj Party? [2]
Question No 10
(a) Mention any three demands of the Moderates. [3]
(b) Mention any three achievements of the Radicals. [3]
(c) Mention any four political contributions of Bal Gangadhar Tilak to the freedom struggle.
[4]
GARDEN HIGH SCHOOL
CLASS X
Half-Yearly Examination, 2008 09
Home Science
Time: 2 hours Full Marks: 100
Answers must be written in the script/s provided. You will not be allowed to write during the
first 15 minutes. This time must be spent in reading the Question Paper. The time given at
the head of this Paper is the time allowed for writing answers.
This Paper is divided into two sections.
Attempt all questions of Section A and any four of Section B.
Maximum marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ].
SECTION A (40 marks)
Attempt all the questions.
Question No 1
(a) Distinguish between value of colour and intensity of colour. [2]
(b) What is Bank? [2]
(c) What is maturation? [2]
(d) Define adolescence. [2]
(e) Name any two dry-cleaning agents. [2]
Question No 2
(a) What are the practical conveniences one must consider before deciding on the lighting
arrangement in a home? [2]
(b) State the difference between credit and hire purchase. [2]
(c) Define development. [2]
(d) Enumerate the causes of premenstrual stress. [2]
(e) Differentiate between darning and patching. [2]
Question No 3
(a) Name four kitchen utensils that are needed daily. [2]
(b) List four factors that affect a family budget. [2]
(c) What is social development? [2]
(d) What is meant by a growth spurt? [2]
(e) Mention any two properties of a good laundry soap. [2]
Question No 4
(a) What do flowers, arranged properly, do to a room? [2]
(b) Give two advantages of opening a bank account. [2]
(c) What is meant by cognitive development in children? [2]
(d) Explain the use of gum arabic and rita nut in laundry. [2]
(e) What are optical brighteners? [2]
( 2 )
SECTION B (60 marks)
Attempt any four questions.
Question No 5
It is the individual touch of the homemaker that makes a house a home.
In the light of this statement, answer the following questions:
(a) How would you plan the furniture for the different rooms in your home? [5]
(b) How is glare caused? How can it be reduced? [5]
(c) Name the three work centres in a kitchen. Explain the arrangement and coordination
of the work centres. [5]
Question No 6
A basic knowledge of finance is essential for a housewife.
In the light of this statement, answer the following questions:
(a) Mention the steps to be taken and formalities to be observed for opening a bank
account. [5]
(b) Discuss the five steps involved in making a realistic budget plan. [5]
(c) What are the factors that affect stretchability of money? [5]
Question No 7
(a) Explain the relationship between the socio-economic status of the family and the
language development of the child. [5]
(b) Discuss the role of siblings and grandparents in the socialization of the child. [5]
(c) What are the characteristics of friendship? Discuss the role of friendship in the
social and emotional development in middle childhood. [5]
Question No 8
Puberty is characterised by certain developmental changes that occur at no other time in
ones lifespan.
In the light of this statement, answer the following questions:
(a) Explain the need for adolescents to pay attention to personal hygiene. [5]
(b) Discuss the influence of the endocrine glands on the physical growth of an adolescent.
[5]
(c) Mention the factors that lead to conflict between adolescents and their parents. [5]
Question No 9
(a) What are the precautions that one must take while bleaching clothes? [5]
(b) What are the steps involved in the laundering of a salwar kameez made of silk? [5]
(c) What is the principle behind dry-cleaning of clothes? Discuss the advantages and
disadvantages of dry-cleaning. [5]
Question No 10
(a) Describe the procedure that one must follow to remove stains from clothes. [5]
(b) List the stages of development from conception to adulthood. [5]
(c) What is a cheque? Enumerate the characteristics of a cheque. [5]
Answers must be written in the script/s provided. You will not be allowed to write during the
first 15 minutes. This time must be spent in reading the Question Paper. The time given at
the head of this Paper is the time allowed for writing answers.
This Paper is divided into two Sections.
Answer all the questions of Section A and any four of Section B.
All working, including rough work, must be clearly shown and done in the
right-hand margin of the sheet containing the answer. Omission of any essential
working will result in deduction of marks.
Maximum marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ].
SECTION A (40 marks)
Answer all the questions.
GARDEN HIGH SCHOOL
CLASS X
Half-Yearly Examination, 2008 09
Mathematics
Time: 2 hours Full Marks: 80
1. (a) Find the L.C.M of 35 x 2 x , 25 x
2 2
, and 35 x 12 x
2
+ . [3]
(b) The mid-point of AB is P (2, 4). The coordinates of the points A and B are (a, 0)
and (0, b) respectively. Find a and b. [2]
(c) If

y
6
2
x
0 5
3 4




, find the values of x and y. [3]
(d) Find the value, without using tables, of the following:
o
o
o
o
64 ec cos
26 cos
64 sec
26 sin
+
[2]
2. (a) Solve the following inequation and represent the solution set on the number line:
30 4(2x 1) >8, x {positive integers} [3]
(b) Find the values of k for which the equation 4x
2
+kx +9 =0 will have equal roots. [3]
(c) A model of a ship is made to a scale of 1:200. [4]
(i) The length of the model is 4 m. Calculate the length of the ship.
(ii) The area of the deck of the ship is 160000 m
2
. Find the area of deck of the model.
( 2 )
3. (a) A quarter circle of radius r cm has a perimeter of 22
.
5 cm.
Find: (i) the value of r.
(ii) the area of the quarter circle, correct to the nearest sq. cm.

=
7
22
[3]
(b) In what time will a sum of Rs 8000 become Rs 9261 at a compound interest of 10%
per annum, compounded half-yearly. [3]
(c) Point P (a, b) is reflected in x-axis to P' (5, 2).
(i) Write down the values of a and b.
(ii) P" is the image of P when reflected in the y-axis. Write down the coordinates
of P''.
(iii) Name the single transformation that maps P' to P''. [4]
4. (a) If

=
2 3
1 2
B ,
3 2
2 1
A

, and

=
1 3
3 1
C
, find C(B A). [3]
(b) The centre of a circle of radius 13 cm lies at the point C (3, 6). P (7, 9) is a point inside
the circle. APB is a chord of the circle such that AP =PB. Find the length of AB. [3]
(c) In the given figure, AB
||
CD,
and O is the centre of the circle.
If ADC =24
o
, find AEB. [4]
SECTION B (40 marks)
Answer any four questions.
5. (a) Prove that the ratio of the areas of two similar triangles is equal to the ratio of the squares
of any two corresponding medians. [3]
(b) If a line passes through the point (1, 2) and cuts off positive intercepts on the x-axis and
the y-axis in the ratio 2 : 3, find the equation for the line and its slope. [3]
(c) If 6 x 5 x
2
+ is the H.C.F of ) 6 px x ( ) 2 x 3 x ( ) x ( f
2 2
+ + = and
) q x x ( ) 9 x ( ) x ( g
2 2
+ =
, find p and q. [4]
B
A
O
E
C D
24
o
6. (a) Prove that:
+ =

+
tan sec
sin 1
sin 1

[3]
(b) Prove that in a circle the angles in the same segment are equal. [3]
(c) If a, b, c are in continued proportion, prove that:
2 2
2 2
c b
) c a ( b
) c a ( b
b a
+
+
=
+
+
. [4]
7. (a) A computer was bought for Rs 49,113 which included a 15% rebate on the marked price
and a 7% VAT on the reduced price. Find the marked price of the computer. [3]
(b) In the ABC, B =90
o
, AB =12 cm and AC =15 cm.
D and E are points on AB and AC respectively such
that AED =90
o
and DE =3 cm. Find:
(i) the area of the ADE.
(ii)
) ABC ( area
) BCED ral quadrilate ( area


. [4]
(c) If
1 x 4
2

is a factor of
1 qx px x 12
2 3
+ +
, find p and q. [3]
8. (a) Show that 2x +7 is a factor of 14 x 4 x 7 x 2
2 3
+ . Hence factorize 14 x 4 x 7 x 2
2 3
+ .
[3]
(b) If (a +3b +2c +6d) (a 3b 2c +6d) =(a 3b +2c 6d) (a +3b 2c 6d),
prove that a:b =c:d. [3]
(c) Mrs Rane has a savings bank account. Her pass book details are given below:
Date Particulars Withdrawals Deposits Balance
(Rs) (Rs) (Rs)
12 January By Cash 8000 8000
18 February To Self 2000 6000
28 March By Cash 3000 9000
31 March By Interest 50
20 May By Cash 2000
11 June By Cheque 7550
If the interest is calculated at 5% p.a and is compounded at the end of March and June,
fill in the missing entries. Find the final balance as on 01 July. [4]
( 3 )
A
B
C
E
D
( 4 )
9. (a) An open cylindrical vessel of internal diameter 49 cm and height 64 cm stands on a horizontal
platform. A solid metallic right circular cone with a base of diameter 10cm and height
12 cm is placed inside the cylinder. Calculate the volume of water required to fill the
vessel. (Take
7
22
= ) [3]
(b) Prove that:

=
+
+
2
2
2
2
cos
sin
cot 1
tan 1
[3]
(c) If
b 3 a 2 b 3 a 2
b 3 a 2 b 3 a 2
x
+
+ +
=


, prove that 0 b 3 ax 4 bx 3
2
= + . [4]
10. (a) In the adjoining figure, if BAD =65
o
,
ABD =70
o
, and BDC =45
o
, calculate
the values of (i) BCD and (ii) ADB.
Show that AC is a diameter.
[3]
(b) The points A (2, 1), B (0, 3), and C (2, 2) are the vertices of a triangle.
(i) Plot the points on a graph paper.
(ii) Draw the triangle formed by reflecting these points in the x-axis. [3]
(c) A sum of money is invested at compound interest payable annually. The interest in two
successive years is Rs 225 and Rs 240 respectively. Find (i) the rate of interest, and
(ii) the sum invested. [4]
11. (a) The angle of elevation of a cloud from a point 50 m above a lake is 30
o
and the measure of
the angle of depression of its reflection in the lake is 60
o
. Find the height of the cloud.
[3]
(b) Lata goes to a shop to buy a leather coat. It costs Rs 654. The rate of sales tax is 9%. She
tells the shopkeeper to reduce the price so that she has to pay Rs 654 in all. Find the
reduced price and the reduction needed in the price of the coat. [3]
(c) A solid cylinder of radius 14 cm and height 21 cm is melted down to be recast into spheres
of radius 3
.
5 cm each. Calculate the number of such spheres that can be made. [4]
C
D
A B
70
o
65
o
45
o
GARDEN HIGH SCHOOL
CLASS X
Half-Yearly Examination, 2008 09
Physics
Time: 1 hours Full Marks: 80
Answers must be written in the script/s provided. You will not be allowed to write during the
first 15 minutes. This time must be spent in reading the Question Paper. The time given at
the head of this Paper is the time allowed for writing answers.
This Paper is divided into two sections.
Attempt all questions of Section A and any four of Section B.
Maximum marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ].
SECTION A (40 marks)
Attempt all questions.
Question No 1
(a) Name the SI unit of work. Define it. [1 +2]
(b) State the relation between horse power and watt. [2]
(c) Draw two separate graphs to show the variation of
(i) acceleration with mass for a constant force [2]
(ii) force with mass for a constant acceleration [2]
(d) A compressed spring is allowed to be dissolved in an acid. What happens to the
potential energy of the spring? [1]
Question No 2
(a) A porter moving vertically up the stairs with a load on his head does work, whereas
when he moves along a horizontal road with the same load on his head, he does no
work. Why? [2]
(b) Give the relation between efficiency, velocity ratio, and mechanical advantage with
reference to a simple machine. State the working principle of an ideal machine. [2]
(c) State Ohms law. [2]
(d) Why is the efficiency of a practical machine always less than one? [2]
(e) Give an expression for the mechanical advantage of an inclined plane. [2]
( 2 )
Question No 3
(a) For which wavelength of white light is the refractive index of a transparent medium
maximum, and for which wavelength, minimum? [2]
(b) What is the refractive index of air or vacuum? Can the relative refractive index of a
medium with respect to another medium be less than unity? [2]
(c) Does the critical angle depend on the colour of light? Give the relation between the
critical angle and refractive index of a medium. [2]
(d) Give any two characteristics of an image produced by a concave lens. [2]
(e) State any two factors on which the lateral shift related to a rectangular glass slab
depends. [2]
Question No 4
(a) What type of lens is a tumbler filled with water? [1]
(b) Define the term specific heat capacity. Name the substance which has the maximum
specific heat capacity. [2]
(c) It is difficult to cook vegetables on hills and mountains. Explain. [2]
(d) How is the power of a lens related to its focal length? What can you say about the
nature of a lens from the sign of its focal length? [2]
(e) An electric oven is rated at 1.5 kW 250 V. If it is connected to a 250 V mains,
calculate the
(i) current drawn by the oven from the source.
(ii) energy consumed by the oven in 20 hours.
(iii) cost of energy consumed in 20 hours at the rate of Re 1 per unit. [3]
SECTION B (40 marks)
Attempt any four questions.
Question No 5
(a) Explain the meaning of the statement: The current rating of a fuse is 5 amps. [2]
(b) Why should the cable of a high-powered domestic electrical appliance be thicker? [2]
(c) State the factors on which the heat dissipated by a conductor depends? [2]
(d) Why is tungsten used as the filament in an electric bulb? [2]
(e) Mention two important properties of magnetic field lines. [2]
( 3 )
Question No 6
(a) What is a solenoid? [2]
(b) State the function of an armature coil in a d.c motor. [2]
(c) What is the difference between an electron and a beta particle? [2]
(d) State two characteristics of thermionic emitters. [2]
(e) What is vibrated to produce sound in:
(i) a drum (ii) a violin (iii) an organ pipe (iv) jaltarang ? [2]
Question No 7
(a) From , , and name the one
(i) which has the maximum ionizing power?
(ii) which travels with the speed of light?
(iii) which is not affected by an electric or magnetic field? [3]
(b) Explain why a stringed instrument has strings of different thicknesses? [2]
(c) Which characteristics of a sound wave determines its loudness? How is the loudness
related to this characteristics of the wave? What is the unit used to measure the
loudness of sound? [3]
(d) Distinguish between free vibrations and forced vibrations. [2]
Question No 8
(a) 1
.
0 kg of lead at 327
o
C is cooled to 27
o
C when it gives off 11,250 calories of energy.
Calculate the specific heat capacity of lead in:
(i) calories (ii) joules [4]
(b) In winter, the weather forecast for a certain day was severe frost. A wise farmer
watered his fields the night before to prevent any damage to his crops. Why? [2]
(c) Name the radiations of wavelength
(i) longer than 8 10
7
m, and
(ii) shorter than 3
.
8 10
7
m. [2]
(d) Arrange the following in an increasing order with respect to wavelength:
Blue light, microwaves, X-rays, infrared rays [2]
( 4 )
Question No 9
(a) What should be the characteristics of the material used as fuse wire? [2]
(b) The temperature of the filament of an electric bulb is nearly 2700
o
C when it glows.
Why does it not burn up at such a high temperature? [2]
(c) Draw a representative diagram of a d.c motor. Label the following parts in your
diagram:
(i) field magnet (ii) armature (iii) commutator (iv) brushes
What are the energy changes involved in this case? [2 +2 +1]
(d) What is a porro-prism? [1]
Question No 10
(a) In the given figure, a beam of parallel rays falls on a converging lens L. After refraction,
the converging beam falls upon another lens hidden in the box A. The beam emerging
from the hidden lens is again parallel as shown in the figure.
A L
(i) What is the nature of the lens hidden in the box?
(ii) Draw the paths of the rays through the hidden lens.
(iii) Locate the focus of the hidden lens. [3]
(b) A person, standing at the edge of a lake, fired a gun. Another person standing on the
opposite bank heard the sound 5 s after he saw the flash. If the velocity of sound in
air at that time was 332 ms
1
, calculate the width of the lake. [3]
(c) Two 5 kg weights are suspended from the two ends of a rope which passes over two
smooth pulleys P
1
and P
2
. Is the tension in the rope equal to 5 kgf, 10 kgf or 0? [2]
5 kgf 5 kgf
P
1
P
2
(d) State Newtons third law of motion. [2]