Anaesthesia questions

1) Presentation of high(total) spinal anesthesia include all of the following EXCEPT

A) Hypotension
B) Tachycrdia
C) Rrespiratory insufficiency
D) Apnea
E) Upper extremity weakness

2) Which ASA Classification has the following patient

50 y old patient with uncontrolled hypertension has perforated duodenal ulcer:
a) ASA 4 E
b) ASA 2 E
c) ASA 3
d) ASA 4
e) ASA 3 E

3) Which of the following hypnotics has a good analgesic effect

A) Thiopental
B) Propofol
C) Ketamine
D) Benzodiazepines
E) Etomidate

4) Relative contraindications to central blockade include all of the following EXCEPT

A) Increased intracranial pressure
B) Peripheral neuropathy
C) Certain cardiac lesions
D) Aspirin
E) Psychosis ,dementia .

5)Advantages of central blockade over general anesthesia include all of the following
EXCEPT
A) Metabolic stress response to surgery is more effectively reduced .
B) Blood loss is less
C) Incidence of thromboembolic complications decreased
D) Less postoperative pain
E) Better hemodynamic control

6) Appropriate endotracheal tube size for a full term newborn

A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 4.5
E) 5

7)The most appropriate method to confirm correct placement of endotracheal tube

A) Capnogram
B) Pulse oximeter
C) Auscultation

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 D) Percussion of the chest
E) Observation of chest movement

8) Inhalational induction of general anesthesia is indicated in :

A) Diabetes mellitus
B) Hypertension
C) Ischemic heart disease
D) Airway obstruction
E) All of the above

9)The maximal dose of lidocaine for local anesthesia is :

A) 3mg/kg without adrenaline
B) 4 mg/kg with adrenaline
C) 7mg/kg with adrenaline
D) 9mg/kg with adrenaline
E) 2mg /kg without adrenaline

10)The most appropriate hypnotic for hypotensive patient is :

A) Ketamine
B) Midazolam
C) Propofol
D) Thiopental
E) Halothane

11) Concerning lidocaine , what is true ?

A- Is an ester chemical .
B- Is slow in onset .
C- Is not absorbed from trachea .
D- Stabilize the myocardium .
E- Is a drug of addiction .

12) If thiopental is diluted 2.5% ,this mean each 1ml contains :

A) 50 mg
B) 25 mg
C) 2.5 mg
D) 5mg
E) 12.5 mg

13) Which of the following increase MAC ?

a- Benzodiazepines
b- Opioids
c- Nitrous oxide
d- Hypothyroidism
e- Hyperthermia

14) MAC of halothane =

A) 0.7%
B) 1.15%
C) 1.7%
D) 104%

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E) 2.7%

15) Which Drug therapy is usually continued throughout the operative period ?
A) Beta blockers
B) Aspirin
C) Monoamineoxidase inhibitors
D) Warfarrine
E) Oral hypoglycaemic drugs

16) Which of the following is the best hypnotic for day care surgery ?
A) Ketamine
B) Thiopental
C) Diazepam
D) Etomidate
E) Propofol

17) The most appropriate muscle relaxant for patient with renal failure is
A) Succinylcholine
B) Pancuronium
C) Vecuronium
D) Atracurium
E) Mivacurium

18) In which of the following conditions is pulse oximeter is inaccurate ?

A) Hypertension
B) Vasodilation
C)Nail polish
D) Hyperthermia
E) All of the above

19) The adult patient should be NPO (food ) before elective surgery for at least :
A) 2Hours
B) 4 Hours
C) 6Hours
D) 10 Hours
E) 12Hours

20) High airway pressure may be seen in the following conditions EXCEPT
A) ETT kinked
B) Disconnection of ETT
C) Endobronchial intubation
D) ETT on carina
E) Sputum in the tube

21- Major side effects of succinylcholine include all of the following EXCEPT
A) Muscle aches
B) Hypertension
C) Hyperkalemia
D)Raised intracranial pressure
E) Triggering of malignant hyperthermia

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22) You dilute 0.1mg fentanyl in 10 cc saline , then each 1cc contains
A) 1 microgram
B) 10 microgram
C) 100 microgram
D) 0.001 mg
E) None of the above

23) In adults, the angle at which the right main bronchus leaves the carina is:
A. 15 degrees.
B. 20 degrees.
C. 25 degrees.
D. 30 degrees.
E. 35 degrees

24) In the adult the spinal cord ends at the :

a- Fourth lumbar vertebra
b- L3-4 interspace
c- Twelfth thoracic vertebrae
d- Second lumbar vertebrae
e- T12-L1

25) In comparison to midazolam, diazepam has

A - A greater potency
B - A greater volume of distribution
C - Greater protein binding
D - More rapid clearance
E - A longer elimination half-life

26) Administration of anticholinesterase drugs will :

a- Prolonged all neuromuscular blockade
b- Always reverse nondepolarizing agent
c- Shorten the block of a depolarizing agent
d- Reverse the action of a depolarizing agent if only partial paralysis is present
e-Reverse nondepolarizing agents if plasma concentration of drug is low enough

27) Which of the following intravenous anesthetic agents is associated with the highest
incidence of nausea and vomiting ?
A. Thiopental
B. Etomidate
C. Ketamine
D. Propofol
E. Midazolam

28) Sweating during general anesthesia may indicate :

a- Hypocarbia
b- Hypoxia
c- Deep anesthesia
d- Hypercapnia
e- Adequate muscle relaxation

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29) The following can be used safely for i.v. regional anaesthesia
a- 1% bupivacaine
b- 0.5% bupivacaine
c- 0.5% prilocaine
d- 4% lidocaine
e- 2% lidocaine+adrenaline

30) Regarding post-spinal headache what is FALSE:

a- There is an association between headache and the rate of CSF loss
b- It is related to the diameter of needle used
c- In 85% of patient the headache is diffuse and radiated to neck
d- It can be associated with visual symptoms
e –It can be associated with auditory symptom

31) Hypokalemia occur in all of the following EXCEPT :

a- Cushing's syndrome
b-Conn's syndrome
c- Addison's disease
d- Renal tubular acidosis
e- Laxative administration

32) Interstitial fluid space accounts for what portion of total body weight :
a- 5%
b- 25%
c- 55%
d- 15%
e- 40%

33) Which of the following may cause transient muscle rigidity in very high dose ?
A) Fentanyl
B) Pethidine
C) Ketamine
D) Propofol
E) All of the above

34) Regarding the potency of opioids

A) Sufentanyl is 1000 X more potent than morphine
B) Alfentanyl 1s 10 X more potent than fentanyl
C) Meperidine is 1/10 potent compared with fentanyl
D) Tramadol is 10X more potent than meperidine
E) Fentanyl is 10X more potent than morphine

35) The most common cause of a low oxygen saturation during anesthesia is :
A) Obstructed airway
B) Aspiration
C) Anemia
D) Tachycardia
E) Hypotension

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36) The major determinant of the flow rate achieved through a cannula is :
A) Fourth power of radius
B) Density of fluid
C) Length of the cannula
D) Viscosity of fluid
E) Pressure

37) Common approaches for central venous cannulation include :

A) Subclavian vein
B) Radial vein
C) Saphenous vein
D) Cephalic vein
E) All of the above

38) Indication for intubation may be :

A) Every chest infection
B) Every head injury
C) Cardiac arrest
D) Every general anesthesia
E) All of the above

39)Average tidal volume for adults =

A) 5 ml/kg
B)10 ml/kg
C) 15 ml/kg
D) 20 ml/kg
E) 25 ml/kg

40) Which of the following is colloid ?

A) Nomal saline
B) Ringer lactate
C) Dextrose 5%
D) Starch
E) Dextrose saline

41) Manifestation of malignant hyperthermia include all of the following EXCEPT :

A) hypercarbia
B) tachycardia,
C) hypertension
D) acidosis ,
E) hypokalemia

42) advantages of laryngeal mask airway compared with endotracheal tube include all
of the following EXCEPT
A) No need for laryngoscope
B) quick
C) simple
D) Route of drug administration
E) Less incidence of laryngeal trauma

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43) Management of accidental intraarterial thiopental administration include all of the
following EXCEPT
A) Remove the cannula used
B) Give lidocaine or procaine
C) Give alpha blocker
D) Heparin i.v to stop thrombus forming
E) Postpone surgery unless emergent

44) Which statement about opioid receptors is FALSE

A) found in many locations in the body, particularly in the brain, brainstem, and spinal cord
B) mu receptors are responsible for analgesia, dependence
C) kappa receptors are responsible for spinal analgesia, sedation
D) sigma receptors are responsible for hallucinations, dysphoria
E) delta receptors are responsible for respiratory depression

45) Which statement about local anesthetics is FALSE

A) Amides undergo biotransformation in the liver
B) The higher the lipid solubility , the higher the potency
C) tetracaine is an ester
D) The greater the protein binding , the longer the duration
E) The closer the Pka of LA to tissue pH , the less rapid the onset time

46) Clinical manifestations of LA toxicity may be

A) Hypertension
B) Hypotension
C) Tachycardia
D) Bradycardia
E) All of the above

47) 500 ml Dextrose 20% contain :

A) 400 calories
B) 200 calories
C) 500 calories
D) 1000 calories
E) 100 calories

48) Regarding iv cannulation , which statement is FALSE

A) The cellular fluids have the highest flow rates
B) The infusion rate through central catheter will be less than the infusion rate through
peripheral catheter (of equal diameter )
C) The veins in the anticubital fossa provide rapid and safe vascular access for acute
resuscitative therapy
D) Any pre-hospital fluids or medications approved for IV use may be given through an
intraosseous IV
E) External jugular IV is indicated for critically ill patients > 12y old who requires
intravenous access for fluid or medication administration , and in whom an extremity vein is
not obtainable

49) Regarding iv fluids , which statement is FALSE

A) 3ml of isotonic saline are needed to replace 1ml blood

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B) Disadvantage of Isotonic Saline (0,9 Sodium chloride ) is hypochloremic metabolic
acidosis with large volume resuscitation .
C) lactated Ringer solution is contraindicated as a dilute for blood transfusion
D) Disadvantage of Normosol is hypermagnesemia in renal failure
E) Dextrose solution is not an effective volume expander

50) Which gas can be hazardous in pneumothorax and intestinal obstruction

A) N2O
B) Haothane
C) Isofurane
D) Enfurane
E) All of the above

Answer keys
1- B
2- E
3- C
4- A
5- E
6- B
7- A
8- D
9- C
10- A
11- D
12- B
13- E
14- A
15- A
16- E
17- D
18- C
19- C
20- B

21- B

22- B

23- C

24- D

25- E

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26- E

27- B

28- D

29- C

30- C

31- C

32- D

33- A

34- A

35- A

36- A

37- A

38- C

39- B

40- D

41- E

42- D

43- A

44- E

45- E

46- E

47- A

48- A

49- B

50- A

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