Crime Detection and Investigation Board Exam Trial: Prepared by Prof. Karl Luis Baguhin

CRIME DETECTION AND INVESTIGATION
BOARD EXAM TRIAL

Prepared by Prof. Karl Luis Baguhin
FUNDAMENTALS OF CRIMINAL INVESTIGATION AND

INTELLIGENCE
1. Which of the following is not the function of criminal the accuracy of his identification of the suspect?
investigation?
a. Identify, locate and arrest the person who commits a. His ability to observe and remember the distinct appearance
crime of the suspect
b. Prosecute and convict the criminal b. The prevailing conditions of visibility and observation when
c. Identify, collect and preserve evidence the crime was committed
d. Bring the offender to justice c. His state of mind when he witnessed the commission of the
crime
2. Which of the following is the primary source of d. The lapse of time between the criminal event and when
evidence? identification was made
A. victim
B. crime scene 10. In this process, written confession of the accused is used
C. suspect as a script in describing events of the crime. This strengthens
D. all of these the prosecutor’s case and serves to convince the judge that the
accused was not maltreated nor affected by sinister
3. One of the elements of sketch wherein the graphical psychological influence.
representation must indicate the ____ direction for proper a. Mental reconstruction = after physical reconstruction, mag-
orientation of the scene. iisip si Investigator ng conclusion base sa statement ng
A. North witness.
B. West b. Crime reenactment
C. East c. Reconstruction
D. South d. Physical reconstruction
4. The Unit now charged with conducting field operation 11. Assume that you are an investigator who investigates a
and technical investigation at the crime scene is: murder case perpetrated by an unknown suspect. A person in
a. PNP Crime Laboratory the name of Ruel, a call center agent, saw the crime and he is
b. Criminal Investigation and Detection Group willing to identify the suspect. Which of the following methods
c. Scene of the Crime Operation will you not utilize to establish the identity of the suspect?
d. Crime Scene Investigation a. Verbal Description (Portrait Parle) and Rogue’s Gallery
(Photographic Files)
5. Information gathered upon initiative of the b. General Photographs and Cartographic Sketch (Artist’s
investigator from informants, vendors, taxicab driver, GRO, and Assistance) [Composite Artist]
others. c. Police Line-up
A. Grapevine Sources d. Systematic interview that may lead to the identity of
B. Cultivated Sources a known criminals
C.Regular Sources
D.Cognitive interview 12. Which of the following is not one of the forms of information
the investigator obtained from regular, cultivated or grapevine
6. It deals with the identity, location and arrest of a person sources?
who commits a crime and simultaneously identify, collect, a. Sensory
preserve and evaluate evidence for the purpose of bringing b. Written
criminal offender to justice. c. Concrete
a. Investigation c. Investigative process d. Physical forms
b. Criminal investigation d. Criminal inquest
13. You are an investigator who investigates an alleged robbery
7. One of the stages of criminal investigation is the with homicide case perpetrated by unknown suspects. Since
identification of criminals, which can be done in any or a there are no witnesses to the crime the following may give you
combination of the following, except: a hint to identify the suspect, except one.
a. By confession or admission by the criminal a. Motive and opportunity
b. By corpus delicti b. Declaration and acts indicative of guilt, preparation for a
c. By circumstantial evidence commission of crime and possession of fruits of a crime of the
d. By eyewitness perpetrator
c. Modus Operandi, associative evidence and criminal
8. The word investigation came from the latin word? potentiality
a. to trace d. Knowledge, skills, tools or facilities that could easily
c. investigare be adopted to criminal use by the suspect
b. investigation
d. To track 14. Why does the dead body of the victim of violence needs to
be photographed after its removal from the crime scene?
9.You are an investigator, investigating a suspected rape- a. To have a set of view showing the relationship of the body
slaying case which was allegedly witnessed by a certain person with the surrounding
who volunteered to identify and testify against the perpetrator. b. To identify the victim and have close-up picture of
What are the factors that you should not consider to determine the wounds
1|P age AMICI REVIEW CENTER

c. To provide reserve picture in case of loss or damage d. evaluation
d. All of the above
24. Coerced and uncounseled statement are considered
15. It supplements photographs of the crime scene and involuntary or forced which are usually an:
considered to be the simplest and the most effective way of a. judicial confession
showing actual measurements and of identifying significant of b. police admission
evidence in their location at the scene. c. extra judicial confession
a. Crime scene sketch d. prosecutor admission
b. Rough sketch measurement
c. Finished sketch 25. Through this tool of criminal investigation tangible things
d. Direction sketch maybe used to detect crimes, identify the criminals, facilitate,
and assist the investigator in its task in achieving the objectives
16. In searching for physical evidence at the crime scene, the of criminal investigation.
following types of search could be used depending upon locale, a. Information
number of personnel available, type of object sought and speed b. Criminalistics
desired, except: c. Instrumentation
a. Strip and double strip or grid search d. Interview/Interrogation
b. Zone search
c. Rectangular 26 . What specific offence has been committed? Who
d. Spiral and wheel search committed it? When it was committed? Where it was
committed? Why it was committed? And how it was
17. Which of the following must be done to maintain the committed? This are called____ of criminal investigation.
physical integrity of evidence? a. Cardinal Points
a. Evidence must be photographed and packaged b. Three I’s
b. Evidence must be properly documented c. Golden Rule
c. Maintain its chain of custody d. Bridges burn
d. Identify, tag and seal the evidence
27. the peculiar habits of the criminals in committing crimes
18. Which one is not a means of recording crime a scene? make an overview of the criminals.
a. By photographs a. operational method
b. By notes b. modus operandi
c. By sketches c. operational techniques
d. Surveying d. signature of the crime
19. What is the principal psychological factor that contributes 28. Person who by social or professional position possesses or
to a successful interrogation? has access to information of continuing interest, and who
a. Privacy willingly provides information to the police either in response
b. Rapport between the interrogator and the subject to a specific request or his own initiative.
c. Legality a. Incidental informant
d. It should be done in the interrogation room with one way b. Casual informant
mirror c. Automatic informant
d. Recruited informant
20. Under Republic Act 7438, when does the police’ custody of
suspect to a crime commence, hence the latter is entitled to be 29. The most unusual style of interrogation
informed of his rights under the Miranda doctrine which cannot a. Jolting
be waived? b. Hypnotism
a. At the time of custodial investigation c. Mutt and Jeff
b. During the actual questioning d. Bluff on a split pair
c. During the announcement that he is under arrest
d. At the moment that he is invited for questioning 30. Which sketch gives the clear impression of the scene in
cases where blood stains or bullet holes are found?
21. The Female Blowfly which typically lay it’s eggs at the A. sketch of locality
_______. B. ground sketch
a. drainage D. sketch in details
b. canals C. cross projection
c. water
d. rotten flesh 31. During custodial investigation in the police station, Mr. X
confessed that he was the one who killed Mr. Y because the
22. Physical evidence are contaminated, altered of shape, latter killed his brother a week ago. He voluntarily signed a
damaged or lost because of: statement containing his confession, but he refused the
a. Improper packaging assistance of a lawyer claiming that he is not capable of paying
b. Corruption of investigator the services of a private counsel. Is the confession admissible
c. Non-maintenance of chain of custody in evidence?
d. A and C are true A. Yes, because it was voluntary given by the suspect.
B. Yes, because the confession is in writing.
23. Process of ascertaining whether the information identified, C. No, because it is not a confession but an admission.
collected and preserved can stand prosecution and trial.
a. recognition D. No, because he made the confession without the
b. collection assistance of a counsel.
c. preservation

32. What interrogation technique may be applied to calm and rescue the child and shall undertake first in case If the child’s
nervous subjects by constantly observing their behavior and offense is light ?
then the investigator chooses the right moment to shout a A. Immediately Notify the Parents or guardians
pertinent question? B. Immediately transfer the physical custody of the child
A. emotional appeal directly to the barangay of residence for proper disposition
B. jolting C. Give the child a friendly advice or “payo” or a simple warning
C. sympathetic appeal not to repeat the act/s she/he has committed
D. extenuation D. Immediately refer to LSWDO
32. One of the elements of sketch wherein the graphical 41. It refers to a person who gives information relevant to a
representation must indicate the _________ direction for criminal case about the activities of the criminals voluntarily to
proper orientation of the scene. the investigator and who may even be willing to be a witness.
A. North A. Informant
B. East B. Informer
C. West C. Mercenary
D. South D. Women
34. Once the crime scene has been thoroughly documented 42. Methods of Search whereby the searchers will
and locations of evidence was noted, the collection process proceed at the same place along the path parallel to one side
begins and will usually starts with: of the rectangle.
A. point of exit A. Wheel search method
B. large objects B.Quadrant Search
C. fragile evidence C. Spiral search method
D. removal of cadaver D. Strip Search
35 .IRONIC stands for: 43.Crime scene photographs are admissible as evidence in

A. Inquiry, Recognition, Organization, Novelty, Identity, court; it should be taken from ____.
Continuity A. General View
B. Identity, Rapport, Omnipresent, Narration, Inquiry, C. Close-up view
Conclusion B. Mid-range
C. Identity, Recognition, Opening Statement, Narration, D. General to Specific
Inquiry, Conclusion
D. Identity, Rapport, Opening Statement, Narration, 44. It is the simplest and most effective way of showing actual
Inquiry, Conclusion measurements and of identifying significant items of evidence
in their location at the scene.
36. The purpose of interrogation is to: A. Sketch
a. extract information from uncooperative witness B. Rough Sketch
B. extract confession or admission C. Final Sketch
C. identify the other suspects in the crime D. Finish Sketch
D. all of the above
45.What kind of Sketch gives picture of the scene of the crime
37. The act of placing a distinctive mark on all specimens and its environs, including neighboring buildings, roads, etc.?
gathered at the crime scene or to be submitted evidence. a. Sketch of Locality
A. marking b. Sketch of Environs
B. tagging c. Sketch of the Ground
C. labeling d. Sketch in Details
D. packing
46. Elements of the Sketch:
38. The procedure of identifying a suspect wherein only one a. Measurement and compass direction
person is shown to the witness usually at the scene of the crime b. Essential items and scale of proportion
and made immediately after the arrest, is a police procedure c. Legend and title
called: d. All of the choices
A. police line-up
B. positive identification 47. Police Officer Athan is the first officer to arrive at the
C. confrontation scene of a shooting incident. he saw the victim lying on the
D. physical show-up pavement sustaining multiple gun shot wounds, but still
moving. What is the proper course of action he should take?
39. You are an investigator tasked to investigate a suspected a. Cordon the area and wait for the SOCO team to arrive
murder case which the there is no known suspect, no witnesses b. Ask the desk officer to proceed to the
nor any other circumstantial evidence, except physical crime scene and assist him with the situation.
evidence. Where can you get these pieces of evidence that may C. Call the investigator and inquire
lead you to the identity of the suspect? about his decision concerning the victim.
a. The Crime Scene D. Evacuate the victim and bring him to the nearest
b. The Victim hospital.
c. The Suspect
d. all of these 48. It is the product resulting from the collection, evaluation,
analysis, integration, and interpretation of all available
40. It As soon as the child is rescued, the child shall be information which concerns one or more aspects of criminal
endorsed to the LSWDO and the rescue operations entered in activity and which is immediately or potentially significant to
the Pink Blotter. The responding officer shall immediately police planning:

a. Investigation C. Data b. monetary reward
b. Information D. Intelligence c. as a good citizen
d. revenge
49. What is referred to as the knowledge pertaining to
capabilities, vulnerabilities and probable course of action of 58. After the conduct of final survey by the team leader
foreign nations? to whom will the crime scene be turned over?
a. Combat intelligence A. Chief of Police
b. National intelligence B. PCP Commander
c. Police intelligence C. Investigator-on-case
d. Strategic intelligence D. owner of the place
50. He was the most famous THIEF-CATCHER in 1720s. He 59. The purposes of a crime scene search are the
conceived the idea of charging a fee for locating and returning following, EXCEPT:
stolen property to its rightful owners. a. To identify the method of operation
a. JONATHAN WILD b. To analyze physical evidence
b. HENRY FIELDING c. To reduce the number of suspects
c. JOHN FIELDING d. To obtain physical evidence
d. PATRICK COLQUHOUN
60. The purpose of the autopsy is to determine which of
51. This is the forerunner of the Federal Bureau of Investigation the following
(FBI). a. The actual cause of death of the victim
a. NYPD b. The actual killer of the victim
b. BOSTON POLICE DEPARTMENT c. The modus operandi involved
c. TEXAS RANGERS d. The motive behind killing
d. ILONG RANGERS
61. 41. The method used to support a likely sequence of
52. Intelligence should be essential and pertinent to the events by the observation and evaluation of physical evidence,
purpose at hand. This refers to the principle of _____. as well as statement made by those involved with the incident:
e. a. Continuity C. Selection
f. b. Objective D. Timeliness a. Crime Scene Reconstruction
b. Physical reconstruction
52. P/LT JUWIL submitted an intelligence report evaluated as c. Mental reconstruction
B-5. What does that mean? d. Any of the above
a. Information is usually from a reliable source and is
possibly true. 62. 24. The desk officer upon receipt of the crime incident
b. Information is usually from a reliable source and is shall have the following duties, EXCEPT:
probably true. a. Record the date and time the report was made
c. Information is usually from a reliable source b. Immediately respond to the crime scene
and is improbable. c. Made a synopsis of the incident
d. Information is usually form a reliable source and is d. Inform his superior officer or duty officer regarding
doubtfully true. the report
53. The term used for the object of surveillance is subject 63. What is the area located adjacent to the crime scene
while the investigator conducting the surveillance is: where the briefing is to be conducted and also the place where
a. Rabbit C. decoy the evidence custodian receives the evidence collected during
b. Surveillant D. target crime scene investigation?
A. crime scene
54. 40. In counterintelligence, surveillance is categorized C. fixed post
according to intensity and sensitivity. When there is B. command post
intermittent observation varying in occasions, then this D. reception area
surveillance is called:
a. Loose C. open 64. In preliminary survey of the crime scene, the team
b. Discreet D. close leader performs the following duties, EXCEPT:
a. Takes down note to document important factors
55. 41. A biographical data through fictitious which will b. Makes a general assessment of the crime scene
portray the personality of the agent which is to assume is better c. Photograph the crime scene before walking
known as _____. through the crime scene
A. Cover C. Cover support d. Defines the extent of search area
b. Cover story D. Undercover
65. What is the purpose of conducting final survey of the
56. A person who provides an investigator with crime scene?
confidential information concerning a past or projected crime a. To determine whether or not the processing has been
and does not wish to be known as a source of information. completed.
A. Informant C. Witness b. To turn over the scene to the Chief of Police.
B. Informer D. Confidential c. To check all evidence gathered from the crime
informant scene.
d. To determine whether there is a need to request for
57. Which of the following is the most common reason why an additional personnel
informer gives information to the police?
a. wants to be known to the police 66. The primary reason a finished sketch is made from a

rough sketch is for message from clear to unintelligible forms by use of codes and
A. scale and proportion cipher.
B. future use a. Cryptographer
C. accuracy and clarity b. Crypto Analyst
D.courtroom presentation c. Cryptography
d. Cryptechnician
67. What is the court process requiring a person to bring
documents in his possession to the courts? 76. What is evaluation of the intelligence report gathered
a. summon by Agent Fukymo Mikuto which is “Fairly Reliable and doubtfully
b. subpoena ducestecum true information?
C.subpoena testificandum a. D-4
D. bill of particulars b. C-4
c. C-5
68. What is referred to as the knowledge pertaining to d. D-5
capabilities, vulnerabilities and probable course of actions of
foreign nations? 77. In surveillance, the following are done to alter the
a. combat intelligence appearance of the surveillance vehicle, EXCEPT:
b. national intelligence a.Changing license plates of surveillance vehicle
c. police intelligence b.Putting on and removing hats, coats and sunglasses
d. strategic intelligence c.Change of seating arrangement within the surveillance
vehicle
69. How are coded messages converted to intelligible d.Keep the cars behind the subject car.
language?
a. Encoding 78. The type of intelligence that is immediate in nature
b. Processing and necessary for more effective police planning.
c. Labeling a. Line Intelligence
d. Decoding b. Strategic Intelligence
c. Police Intelligence
70. The type of undercover operation wherein techniques d. Departmental Intelligence
are applied for a longer time and are considered as the most
different (difficult) investigate activity, yet the most rewarding. 79. It is considered as the most secured method of
a. casing disseminating the information to the user of classified matters
b. undercover operation is by means of:
c. penetration a. Debriefing
d. surveillance b. Conference
c. Cryptographic method
71. To what unit do policeman in plain clothes belong d. Seminar
when they infiltrate and gather information about criminal
syndicates?
a. Budget 80. It refers to the combination of all analyzed data to
b. Planning form a logical picture or theory.
c. Intelligence a. Integration
d. Patrol b. Evaluation
c. Deduction
72. A _________ is usually for the purpose of waiting for d. Interpretation
the anticipated arrival of a suspect who is either wanted for
investigation or who is expected to commit a crime at a certain 81. In intelligence functions, a black list means:
location. a. Neutral
a. stake out b. Unwanted
b. cops and robbers game c. Friendly
c. follow up d. Unfriendly
d. surveillance
82. It is claimed that 99% of information is obtained from
73. What is the evaluation of an intelligence report which conspicuous sources and 1% of information is obtained from
is “the information comes from a completely reliable source and clandestine sources. Clandestine means.
is probably true”? a. Observable
a. B-2 b. Overt
b. A-2 c. Visible
c. A-3 d. Covert
d. A 1
83. An E-3 intelligence report means:
74. PAT. JUNELLL evaluated the information gathered as
“completely reliable, source probably true”. What is the type of a. The information comes from completely reliable sources and
evaluation? Improbable true.
a. A-5 b. The information comes from Unreliable sources and probably
b. A-1 true.
c. A-4 c. The information comes from Fairly Reliable sources and
d. A-2 doubtfully true.
d. The information comes from Unreliable sources and
75. It refers to a person who is highly skilled in converting possibly true.

84. Refers to the observations of person’s movements is 94. After the planning on how intelligence is to be
generally refers to as? collected, the intelligence officer must have thorough
a. Plant knowledge of the __________.
b. Stakeout
c. None a. The strength of the area where the information will be
d. Tailing or Shadowing gathered
b. Where they will be collecting the information
85. The classification “Top secret”, have the security color c. Available sources of information
folderof? d. The vulnerabilities of the possessor of intelligence
a. Red
b. Black 95. He often dresses as a beggar & went to the street of
c. Blue Rome to gather first hand information, he is considered as the
d. Green greatest military strategist.
a. Alexander the Great
86. Known as the Prussia's "King of Sleuthhounds" as b. Hannibal
minister of police he studied the use of propaganda and c. Frederick the Great
censorship as well as utilizing statistical intelligence accounting. d. Genghis Khan
a. Herbert Yadley
b. Wilhem Steiber 96. If information comes with a low reliability and doubtful
c. Admiral Yamamoto accuracy, will this information be discarded or refused
d. Joseph Fouche acceptance?
a. Yes
87. The process of assigning higher category of document b. True
or information according to the degree of security needed. c. No
a. Degrading d. False
b. Classification
c. Upgrading 97. A method of collecting information thru interception
d. Advancement of telephone conversation.
a. Bugging
88. It is a process or method of obtaining information b. Wire Tapping
from a captured enemy who is reluctant to divulge information. c. Code name
a. Interview d. NONE
b. Forceful Interrogation
c. Interrogation 98. Is the condition, situation, and circumstance the
d. Tactical Interrogation enemy’s’ area of consideration that render the criminal groups
susceptible to damage, deception, or defeat by the police
89. The purpose of evaluation and analysis is to organization.
determine if the information is true and- a.Conclusion
a. Reliable b.Capabilities
b. Accurate c. Vulnerabilities
c. Correct d.Evaluation
d. Probably true
90. This kind of intelligence is long range in nature: 99. What is the evaluation rating of Unreliable and
a. Line Intelligence Possibly true?
b. Operational Intelligence a. -2
c. Strategic Intelligence b. E-2
d. Counter Intelligence c. E-3
d. C-3
91. It refers to a place, building or enclosed area where
police undercover men meet for debriefing or reporting 100. Phase of intelligence covering the activity devoted in
purposes. destroying the effectiveness of hostile foreign activities and the
a. Safe house protection of information against espionage, subversion and
b. Log sabotage.
c. Live Drop a. Passive Intelligence
d. Decoy b. Counter Intelligence
c. Line Intelligence
92. It is more comprehensive than the NAC or LAC, which d. Demographic Intelligence
includes some or all of the circumstances.
a. National Agency Check SPECIAL CRIME INVESTIGATION WITH LEGAL
b. Background Investigation MEDICINE (CDI2)
c. Complete Background Investigation 1. This is the investigation of cases that are unique and
d. Personnel Security Investigation often require special training to fully understand their broad
significance.
93. He is regarded as the Greatest Spymaster at all time: a. Criminal investigation
a. Frederick the Great b. Homicide investigation
b. Alexander the Great c. Special crime investigation
c. Arthur Wellesley d. All of the above
d. Joseph Hernandez

2. Special crime investigation is more concerned on: 12. The killing is murder when the offender after killing
a. Physical evidence the victim cut off the head and limbs and opened up of the
b. Tracing evidence body to remove the intestines of the deceased. What
c. Testimonial evidence circumstance qualified the killing?
d. Associative evidence A. By mockery at the corpse of the victim
B. By outraging or scoffing at the corpse of the victim
3. Object usually utilized in marking hard objects. C. By inhumanly augmenting the suffering of the victim
a. Stylus D. By employing means to weaken the defense
b. Pen
c. Ink 13. In the course of investigating the house where a stabbing
d. Chalk took place, police find what to be bloodstains on the front door.
Since the unknown perpetrator and the victim who may die
4. Such articles and evidences which assists the were both cut their identities need to be established through
investigator in locating the suspect. the bloodstains. How will the police collect the stains?
a. Physical evidence A. Blot the stain with a clean tissue soaked in alcohol
b. Material evidence B. Remove the door and submit it to the crime lab
c. Associative evidence C. Moisten a piece of clean cotton with a saline solution
d. Tracing evidence and rub gently
D. Scrap the stain into white paper using a clean razor blade
5. Objects or substances which are essential part of the
body of the crime. 14. Fingerprints may be found in the following areas, except:
a. Corpus delicti A. Dressers
b. Physical evidences B. Ceiling
c. Material evidences C. Walls
d. Associative evidences D. Closets
6. The primary consideration in transporting evidences. 15. What is the liability of the offender who, on the occassion
a. Markings should be placed of the crime of robbery, killed his cohort while trying to flee
b. Proper turnover must be observed from the scene?
c. Avoid altering contents A. Robbery with Homicide
d. Proper packing to protect the evidence while in B. Robbery with Murder
transit C. Robbery and Homicide
D. Robbery and Murder
7. General rule in handling pieces of evidence
a. MAC rule 16. May and June are husband and wife. While working as
b. Right of way rule security guard of BDO, June felt sick one night and decided to
c. Last clear chance rule go home around midnight and saw May having sexual
d. None of the choices intercourse with a neighbor named August. June grabbed
August and hacked the latter to death. As an investigator what
8. In handling clothing used as evidence, the stained crime if any would you charged against June?
areas are usually encircled. What is the primary objective? A. Murder
a. To show points of interest B. Parricide
b. To have proper marking C. Homicide
c. To avoid contamination D. None
d. To prevent alterations
17. The robber enter the house. In entering through window,
9. If blood is in fluid condition, what is added to preserve one of the robbers stepped on a child less than three days old.
the specimen? What crime is committed?
a. Formaldehyde A. Robbery with Infanticide
b. Saline solution B. Robbery with Murder
c. Alcohol C. Robbery with Homicide
d. Distilled water D. Robbery with Parricide
10. The primary job of an investigator is to determine 18. It is the intersection of two bloodstain paths, where the
whether a crime has been committed, in order to determine stains come from opposite sides of the impact pattern.
such, he must have knowledge of the so-called cardinal A. Area of Convergence
questions of investigation. How many cardinal questions are B. Point of no escape
there? C. Point of Convergence
a. Three D. Area of no escape
b. Four
c. Five 19. In handling clothing used as evidence, the stained areas
d. Six are usually encircled. What is the primary objective?
A. To have proper markings
11. In bank robberies, this person is in charge of B. To show points of interest
transportation by stealing the vehicle and providing plate on it. C. To avoid contamination
a. Drivers D. To prevent alterations
b. Ripper
c. Wheelman 20. The lifting or removal of a dead body from the grave for
d. Rover the conduct of medical examination:
A. Interment

B. Exhumation a. Ambroise paire c. Justinian
C. Autopsy b. Pope Gregory d. Paulus Zachias
D. Inhumation
20. What is a continuing process of cessation of organs
21.juwil killed Juju and after killing him, juwil saw that juju had and cells?
a beautiful ring and took this. What crime is committed? a. Death c. dying
A. Robbery with Homicide b. Coma d. syncope
B. Robbery and Homicide
C. Homicide and Theft 21. It is a discoloration of the body; setting of blood in the
D. Homicide and Robbery dependent regions following death.
a. Diffusion lividity c. hypostatic
22.To estimate the post mortem interval for a corpse, it is lividity
important to collect as many insects as possible and also to b. Post mortem lividity d. algor mortis
have a good estimate of the _________.
A. Temperature of the surroundings 22. Softening of tissues due to the action of autolytic and
B. Soil conditions proteolytic enzymes in the absence of bacteria. Frequently
C. Body clothing of the dead person observed in the death of the fetus in the uterus.
D. Body weight of the dead person a. Saponification c. adipocere
b. Maceration d. sugilation
23.. Studies have shown that workplace homicide suspects are
typically caused by the following, EXCEPT 23. Normally, how many hours until the stomach empty
A. Domestic offender its contents?
B. Stranger or outsider a. 3-4 c. 4-5
C. Obsessive employee b. 5-6 d. 6-8
D. Disgruntled employee
24. It is the deprivation of a regular and constant supply
24. Which of the following is a blunt force injury caused by of food and water wc is necessary to normal health of a person.
dragging that tears off the tissue often caused by very forceful a. Diet c. hungry
blunt-instrument blows? b. Starvation d. fasting
A. Punctures
B. Lacerations 25. What is the sensation of heat or increase in
C. Contusions temperature?
D. Abrasions a. Rubor c. dolor
b. Calor d. none
15. Bienes Muebles means? of these
A. Intent to gain
B. The dead teaches the living 26. A type of injury where the sight of injury is not at the
C. Taking of personal property belonging to another site of application but in the some areas offering least
D. None of these resistance to the force applied
a. Coup injury c. contre coup
16. Considered by many as the Father of modern forensic b. Locus minoris Resistencia d. extensive
entomology. injury
A. Bernard Greenberg
B. Hans Lipershey 27. He is the earliest medico-legal expert; chief physician
C. Herbert Mcdonell and architect of King Zoser of the third dynasty in Egypt; first
D. Dr. Oscar Amoedo to record a report of a murder trial written on clay tablet.
a. Antistius c. pope Gregory IX
17. When murders based on relationship are to be committed b. Ambroise Paire d. Imhotep
in a home, who among the following MOST LIKELY could be
murdered in the bedroom? 28. It is the use of medical science to elucidate legal
A. Female problems in general without specific reference or application to
B. Children a particular case.
C. Parents-in law a. Medical Jursiprudence c. legal
D. Male medicine
b. Forensic medicine d. none
18. Principles in homicide investigation that should be in mind of these
are, mistakes of the homicide investigator cannot be corrected
and the homicide investigator should not cross the three 29. Which of the following rules on the admissibility of
bridges which he burns behind him. Which of the following is expert evidence questions the witness’ methodology and
not one of this so called "Burned Bridges"? questions whether daubert rule applied solely to scientific
A. When the dead body has been cremated or burned evidence.
B. When the dead body has been contaminated and the a. Frye rule c. kumho
chain of custody was not properly accounted b. Daubert d. none
C. When the dead body has been moved of these
D. When the dead body has been embalmed
30. A kind of facies in which the nose is pinched, temple
19. Father of Forensic Medicine” he published “Questiones hallow, eyes sunken, ears cold, lips relaxed and skin vivid. The
Medico Legales” which dealt with the legal aspects of wound appearance of the face is indicative of approaching death.
and the first two chapter dealt with the detection of secret a. Mongolian facies c. myxedema
homicide. facies

b. Facies leonine d. Hippocratic face b. Rubor d. nota
31. A test for blood which determines whether blood is a 43. A kind of wound produced by a sharp edge
human or non-human origin, and if non-human, the specific instrument. It is longer as much as it is deeper.
animal family from which it originated. a. Incised c. lacerated
a. Solubility test c. takayama test b. Hematoma d. punctured
b. Teichman test d. precipitin test
44. What is the form of abrasion where several lines of
32. Test for blood in which positive result color blue injuries which are parallel to one another?
(1:300,000 dilution) This is an extremely sensitive test that can a. Linear abrasion c. confluent abrasion
be applied to minute stain. b. Multilinear abrasion d. multiple abrasion
a. Gualacum test c. Benzidine
test 45. It is an extravasation of blood in a newly formed cavity
b. Phenolphtalein test d. wagenhaar secondary to trauma characterized by swelling, discoloration of
test tissues swelling and effusion pf blood underneath the tissues.
a. Hematoma
33. A stage in asphyxia death wherein there is paralysis b. contusion
of the respiratory center. The breathing becomes shallow, slow c. Petechial hemorrhage
and gasping. The victim dies of heart failure. d. d. lacerated wound
a. Apneic stage c. dyspnea stage
b. Convulsive stage d. none of these 46. a gait resembling a duck.
a. Waddling gait c. Cerebellar
34. An injury casued by exposure of certain parts of the b. Ataxic gait d. Paretic gait
body to cold temperature causing cold stiffening, necrosis,
gangrene and pallor. 47. It is the longitudinal line drawn on each foot mark.
a. Trench foot c. frostbite a. Foot line c. Gait
b. Immersion foot d. scald line
b. Gait Pattern d. Gait
35. Invented by Burke wherein the assailant will stand or
kneel at the chest of the victim then cover the nostrils. 48. This states the greater the number of points of
a. Mugging c. garroting similarities and variations between two persons the greater the
b. Burking d. over possibility of the conclusion to be accurate
laying a. Odd even rule
b. Law of multiplicity of evidence
36. Also known as gooseflesh, pale puckered and c. last clear chance doctrine
contracted skin due to contraction of erector pili muscles. d. doctrine of supervening facts
a. Cutis anserina c. champignon de ocume
b. Adipocere d. washer woman’s hands 49. A wound where there is no break in the continuity of
the mucous membrane.
37. It is the interval between the termination of labor a. Close wounds
(delivery) to the complete return of the reproductive organ its b. Contusion
normal pregnant state-last from 6 to 8 weeks. c. open wounds
a. Gestational period c. puerperium d. petechiae
b. Labor d. delivery
50. Who was the first product of in vitro fertilization
38. the v- shaped structure formed by the anion of labia a. Mayrish St. Anne c. Carlo Druze
majora posturing and vaginal orifice. b. Ulrich Zwingli d. Lewis Brown
a. Labia minora c. fourchette
b. Vulva d. defloration 51. A child who is a product of the promiscuity of a
prostitute.
39. A sexual deviate in which there is use of obscene a. Incestrous c. Manceres
language to satisfy sexual gratification. b. Sacreligious d. nota
a. Fetishism c. don juanism
b. Transvestism d. coprolalia 52. Their presence in the cadaver would indicate death
has occurred more than 24 hrs hence, useful to indicate
40. What refers to external examination of a dead body approximate time of death.
without incision being made, although blood and other body a. Flies
fluids may be collected for further examination is conducted. b. Butterflies
a. Autopsy c. excision c. bees
b. Post mortem examination d. nota d. earthworms
41. It is an artificial way of preserving the body after 53. Rape is committed under any of the following circumstance,
death by injecting 6 to 8 quarts of antiseptic solutions of EXCEPT:
formalin, per chloride of mercury or arsenic. A. through the use of force, threat or intimidation
a. Inhumation c. burial B. when the offended party is deprived of reasons or otherwise
b. Mummification d. embalming unconscious
C. by means of fraudulent machinations or grave abuse of
42. A vital reaction which is the pain on account of the authority
involvement of sensory nerve. D. it is an exclusive offense committed by man to a
a. Dolor c. Calor woman

b. Coup injury
54.. Post-mortem change that is characterized by the c. Contre coup injury
discoloration of the body after death* d. Coup and contre coup injury
A. Livor mortis
B. Rigor mortis 63. These are superficial punctuate contusions seen most
C. Pallor mortis frequently at the side of the neck, overlaying or anterior to the
D. Algor mortis sternomostoid muscle, breast and other parts of the body.
a. Fetishism
55. The robber/s forces a door or window with an iron tool such b. Sadism
as a tire iron, screwdriver, or small crowbar or box opener.* c. Sodomy
A. The hide –in entry d. Love Bites
B. The jimmy entry
C. Roof entry 64. After cessation of the vital functions of the body there is
D. The cut-in entry still animal life among individual cells. About three (3) to six (6)
hours later there is death of individual cells. This is known
56. In some investigations involving firearms, a determination as________.
of whether the death was a homicidal, suicide or accidental is a. State of Suspended Animation
difficult. In making such determination, the distance of the b. Molecular Death
discharge is of great importance. Majority of suicidal and c. Clinical Death
accidental gunshot cases, arm’s length discharges are involved. d. Somatic Death
Accordingly, if the wound indicates discharge beyond the
victim’s length, it is _________ is indicated. ** 65. In this test, a ligature is applied around the base of a finger
A. accidental with moderate tightness. In a living person there appears a
B. homicide bloodless zone at the site of the application of the ligature. If
C. murder such ligature is applied to the finger of a dead man, there is no
D. suicide such change in color.
a. Diaphanus Test
57. Effusion of blood into the tissue underneath the skin due b. Icard,s Test
to the rupture of blood vessels as a result of the application of c. Magnus Test
a blunt force. d. None of these
a. Contusion
b. Shock 66. An injury, disease or the combination of both injury and
c. Hemorrhage disease responsible for initiating the trend or physiological
d. Hematoma disturbance, brief or prolonged, which produce the fatal
termination.
58. Wound produced to man-s instinctive reaction of self- a. Cause of Death
preservation to repel attacks or an aggressor. b. Manner of Death
a. Defense wound c. Mechanism of Death
b. Self-inflicted wound d. None of These
c. Patterned wound
d. Mutilated wound 67. This applies to cases when trauma or disease kill quickly
that there is no opportunity for sequel or complication to
59. A wound which resembles the shape or object of the develop.
instrument which caused it. a. Mechanism of Death
a. Defense wound b. Manner of Death
b. Self-inflicted wound c. Immediate Cause of Death
c. Patterned wound d. Secondary Cause of Death
d. Mutilated wound
68. It is the explanation as to how the cause of death came
60. Pulverization of the body into shape with the use of intense into being or how the cause of death arose.
heat. a. Mechanism of Death
a. Exhumation b. Manner of Death
b. Cremation c. Cause of Death
c. Charring d. None of the above
d. Pounding
69. The fatality is caused solely by disease.
61. A person who died of a communicable disease must be a. Natural Death
buried with: b. Violent Death
a. 6 hours after death, unless the local health officer permits c. Unnatural death
otherwise d. None of the above
b. 12 hours after death, unless the health officer
permits extension 70. Death due to injury of any sort such as gunshot wound,
c. 24 hours after death, unless the health officer permits stab, fracture, traumatic shock, etc.
extension a. Natural Death
d. 48 hours after death, unless the health officer permits b. Violent Death
extension c. Unnatural death
d. B or C
.62. A physical injury found at the site of the application of
force. 71. A science involving technical knowledge about the
a. Extensive injury traces of crime is known as:
10 | P a g e AMICI REVIEW CENTER

c. Forensic medicine b) logical reasoning d) inductive approach
d. Physical science
e. Forensic science 81. What is the most popular and traditional mode of
f. Criminalistic Technology removing powder residue? (August 2003 Criminologist
Licensure Examination)
72. The process in reproducing physical evidence by A. Swabbing cotton moistened with 5% nitric acid
plaster moulds. B. Washing hands with vinegar
a. Casting C. Washing both hands with hot water
b. Cementing D. Spraying hands with sodium rhodizonate
c. Moulage
d. Pickling 82.. What type of doctor performs autopsy or post-mortem
examination
73. Major component of a glass.
a. Lime A. Toxicologist
b. Silica B. Forensic pathologist
c. Soda C. General practitioner
d. Lime D. Radiologist
74. A super cooled liquid which possess high viscosity and 82. He considered legal medicine as separate discipline
rigidity. and he discussed in his book, abortion, infanticide, death by
a. Lime hanging, lighting, drowning, distinction between ante-mortem
b. Soda and post-mortem wound and poisoning by carbon monoxide
c. Glass and by corrosives
d. Gel a. Justinian c. Pope Gregory
b. Pope Innocent d. Ambroise Paire
75. It is the dissolution of the tissues by the digestive
action of its bacteria and enzyme. 83. Who discussed the lethality of wounds in Greece. Also
a. Primary flaccidity known as the Father of Medicine.
b. Post mortem rigidity a. Ambroise Paire c. Paulus Zachaias
c. Cadaveric spasm b. Pope Clement d. Hippocrates
d. Putrefaction
84. all women dying during confinement should
76. Conclusive evidence that subject person is a female. immediately be opened in order to save the child's life.
a. Possession of vagina a. Antistius c. Matthieu Orfila
b. Possession of ovaries b. Pope Gregory IX d. numa
c. Possession of estrogen Pompilius
d. Possession of progesterone
85. This muscular change upon death lasts about 20 to 30
77. This doctrine is an offspring of the Exclusionary Rule, minutes and is characterized by the relaxation of the muscles
which mandates that evidence obtained from an illegal arrest, and loss of their natural tone.
unreasonable search, or coercive interrogation must be a. Stage of primary flaccidity
excluded from trial: b. Post mortem rigidity
a. Regalian doctrine c) Fruit of the c. Cadaveric spasm
Poisonous Tree d. Secondary flaccidity
b. Silver Platter doctrine d) “Planting” of evidence”
78. This is the act of any person who, with intent to gain 86. Approximate time for the completion of one case for
for himself or for another, shall buy, receive, possess, keep, DNA testing.
acquire, conceal, sell or dispose of, or shall buy and sell, or in a. Minimum of 2 weeks
any other manner deal in any article, item, object or anything b. Minimum of 4 weeks
of value which he knows, or should be known to him, to have c. Minimum of six weeks
been derived from the proceeds of the crime of robbery or d. Minimum of eight weeks
theft:
a) fencing c) estafa 87. Period of time wherein there body would be
skeletonized, under normal conditions in tropical countries.
b) robbery d) theft a. 1 month
b. 3 months
79. Which of the following best describes corpus delicti: c. 6 months
a) the body of the victim in case of homicide or murder d. 12 months
b) essential parts of the body of the crime or the
body of the crime itself 88. In cases of suicide, what would be the noticeable
c) the recovered stolen properties in case of theft or muscular change.
robbery a. Cold stiffening
d) any recovered weapon, either firearm or bladed b. Heat stiffening
weapon c. Instantaneous rigor
d. Putrefaction
80. What type of reasoning is used in reconstruction of
the crime whereby the detective assumes a theory based on 89. A serious burn involving skin nerves, muscles and
collected information? bones, considered as the most severe burn causing death due
a) deduction c) positive approach to loss of fluids and electrolytes in the body and massive

infection. d. ugliness
a. Sunburn
b. 1st degree burn 99. it is one of the oldest methods of suspect identification
c. 2nd degree burn a. cartographic sketch
d. 3rd degree burn b. composite
c. rouge gallery
90. A person who is devoid of oxygen for around 3 to 5 d. police line up
minutes would die, the case of death would be?
a. Stupor 100. essential elements of parricide is
b. Stroke a. age
c. Asphyxia b. blood
d. Exhaustion c. relationship
d. status
91. Fixed discoloration of the blood clothed inside the
blood vessels or has diffused to different parts of the body. SPECIAL CRIME INVESTIGATION WITH INTERVIEW
a. Diffusion lividity AND INTERROGATION (CDI3)
b. Clotting of the blood 1. What if a bank employee was the one killed either by the
c. Rigor mortis robbers or by the policemen in the course of the latter’s action
d. Hypostatic lividity of arresting or trying to arrest the robbers, the crime is______
a. Robbery with homicide
92. Approximate average amount of semen per b. Robbery and murder
ejaculation under normal conditions. c. Robbery only and homicide is aggravating
a. 2 to 2.5 cc d. Homicide and the robbery is only aggravating
b. 2.5 to 5 cc
c. 5 to 10 cc 2.. If, on the occasion or by reason of the robbery, somebody
d. 1.5 to 3.5 cc is killed, and there are also physical injuries inflicted by reason
or on the occasion of the robbery
93. A stole thing from a locker by means of the key of the a. Robbery with homicide and physical injury
owner, what crime was committed? b. Robbery with homicide and the physical injury
a. a theft shall be aggravating
b. robbery c. Robbery with physical injury, homicide is separate
c. possession of pick locks crime
d. possession of false key d. Only robbery, homicide and physical injury aggravate
the crime.
94. Husband punched and kicked his pregnant wife
causing the death of their unborn child is guilty of: 3. The robbers enter the house. In entering through the
a. parricide window, one of the robbers stepped on a child less than three
b. abortion days old. The crime is_____
c. intentional abortion a. Robbery and homicide
d. unintentional abortion b. Robbery with homicide
c. Robbery with infanticide
95. this is known as the anit- deadly arrow law d. Robbery with murder
a.RA 3553 4. The tactics and style of the robbery includes this one which
is the least planned of all and is based on the element of
B.RA 8049 surprise.
a. The selective raid
C.RA 6539 b. The ambush
c. The planned operation
D. RA 7877 d. Nota
96. MENS REA has something to do with: 5. It is the legal act of confiscating.
A. custodial investigation
a.criminal act B. homicide
b.element of causation C. murder
c. duress D. seizure
d. intent element
7. It is the unlawful premeditated killing of one human being
by another.
97.Special crime investigation deals with the A. custodial investigation
A. infraction of law B. homicide
b. special law C. murder
c. major crime D. seizure
d. non-index
8. It is any person who, not falling within the provisions of
98. the following are the factors not affecting algor mortis, Article 246, shall kill another, without the attendance of any of
except the circumstances enumerated in the next preceding article,
a. room temperature shall be deemed guilty of homicide and be punished by
b. clothes reclusion temporal.
c. illness A. custodial investigation

B. homicide events about what occurred during and after the commission
C. murder of crime.
D. seizure A. team leader
B. evidence custodian
C. crime scene
9. It is another way of acquiring an information through a D. reconstruction
pleasant manner.
A. investigation 19. This is a place where crime took place.
B. investigator A. team leader
C. interrogation B. evidence custodian
D. interview C. crime scene
D. reconstruction
10. It is a formal inquiry or systematic study. The action of
investigating something or someone; formal or systematic 20. This refers to a person who is a member of the SOCO team
examination or research. that takes lead during an investigation.
A. investigation A. team leader
B. investigator B. evidence custodian
C. interrogation C. crime scene
D. interview D. reconstruction
11. _______ is a person who conducts formal inquiry. 21 This refers to a person who is responsible in receiving,
A. investigation keeping and preserving of any evidence found by the evidence
B. investigator collector in the crime scene.
C. interrogation A. team leader
D. interview B. evidence custodian
C. crime scene
12. It is the process of being questioned. A tool used to collect
an information. 22. In what crime would the matter of preserving the crime
A. investigation scene LEAST dealt with?
B. investigator A. Robbery
C. interrogation B. Arson
D. interview C. traffic accident
D. homicide
13. It is the act of looking for a person or a thing. 23. . A police officer searching a crime scene should look upon
A. instrumentation evidence as serving to establish one or all of the following
B. SOCO _____________.
C. search A. identity of the victim
D. search warrant B. identity of the guilty person
C. perpetrator’s modus operandi
D. corpus delict
14. It refers to the tools or means by which investigators
attempt to explain everything thattranscribed in the crime 24. What would be the best mark for clothing as evidence?
scene. A. marking lining of ballpen
A. instrumentation B. attaching a metal label
B. SOCO C. photograph taken from several angles
C. search D. serving a cloth tag to part of learning
D. search warrant
25. In suicide cases, the underlying emotion is always
15. It is a warrant directing any peace officer to search and hopelessness, What is the best investigative technique when
seized. you respond?
A. instrumentation A. ask questions
c. B. SOCO B. show willingness to help
d. C. search C. emphatize, build and establish rapport
D. search warrant D. all of these
16.. It a sudden invasion by police officers or officers of the 26. 4. What kind of photographs is carried on clockwise until at
law. least four general view photographs have been taken?
A. warrantless arrest A. none of these
B. warrant of arrest B. articles of evidence
C. checkpoint C. over- all
D. raid D. environmental
17. A ______ is when a police make an arrest without a 27. How can identification be made on a decomposed cadaver?
warrant. A. study his bones
A. warrantless arrest C. study his dentures
B. warrant of arrest B. study his skull
C. checkpoint D. all of these
D. raid
28. In documenting the crime scene, what is the primary
18. This refers to the process of determining the sequence of advantage of using video camera recorder compared to still

photography?
A. provides colorful image 1. Admission
B. shows perspective of the scene 2. Confession
C. sound can easily be heard 3. Deposition
D. nothing its too expensive 4. Accusation
29. An extension or continuation of the preliminary
investigation. 37. It may be a self-incriminatory statement by the
subject falling short of an acknowledgement of guilt.
A. initial investigation
B. custodial investigation 1. Admission
C. secondary investigation 2. Confession
D. follow-up investigation 3. Deposition
4. Accusation
30. To obtain admission and confession of guilt is the
primary purpose of 38. The simplest type of interview which concerns with
the gathering of information regarding the personal
A. Interview circumstances of a person who is the subject of investigation.
B. Surveillance
C. Investigation 1. background interview
D. Interrogation 2. personal interview
3. intimate interview
31. Such facts and circumstances that would lead a 4. pre-game interview
reasonably discreet and prudent man to believe that an offense
has been committed and that the object sought in connection 39. It means method of operation.
with the offense are in the place sought to be searched.
1. corpus delicti
A. prima facie evidence 2. parens patriae
B. probable cause 3. stare decisis
C. prejudicial question 4. modus operandi
D. res ipsa loquitur
40. It is one which induces the criminal to act and need
32. A search warrant shall be valid for _____ days from not be shown in order to obtain conviction.
its date. Thereafter, it shall be void.
1. Intent
A. 10 2. Motive
B. 15 3. Opportunity
C. 30 4. Inducement
D. 45
41. The three tools in criminal investigation, whereby their
33. It means that a specific crime was committed at a application varies in proportion on their necessity to establish
specified time, date and place, and that the person named in the guilt of the accused in a criminal case.
his report committed the crime. a. information, interrogation, instrumentation
b. detection, apprehension, conviction ‘
E. corpus delicti c. inquiry, observation, conclusion
F. sufficiency of evidence d. magnifying glass, pencil, tape measure
G. stare decisis
H. parens patriae 42. The simple questioning of a person who is cooperating
in the investigation.
a. Interview
34. Police seek to prevent crime by being present in b. Inquiry
places where crimes might be committed and by alerting c. Interrogation
citizens to refrain from practices that make them or their d. Instrumentation
property vulnerable.
43. It refers to establishing a good communication in
1. opportunity denial order to proceed a cognitive interview.
2. order maintenance A. case review
3. criminal investigation B. build rapport
4. police intelligence C. simple question
D. avoid implied answers
35. Statement of the suspect directly acknowledging his
guilt. 44. This means that investigators must not allow a question
answerable by yes or no.
1. Admission A. case review
2. Confession B. build rapport
3. Deposition C. simple question
4. Accusation D. avoid implied answers
36. It may be a direct acknowledgement of the truth of 45. The investigator must review the facts about the case.
the guilty fact as charge or of some essential part of the A. case review
commission of the criminal act itself. B. build rapport

C. simple question handling them.
D. avoid implied answers a. Deceitful Witness
b. Honest Witnesses
46. Brief the investigator taking charge. c. Timid Witnesses
A. inner perimeter d. Talkative Type
B. outer perimeter
C. extended perimeter 56. These are witnesses who are prone to exaggerate, adding
D. none of the above irrelevant or new matters to their narration.
a. Deceitful Witness
47. It is the surrounding area which includes any entry and exit b. Honest Witnesses
points, or in the case of a shooting, any area where spent c. Timid Witnesses
ammunition might be found. d. Talkative Type
A. inner perimeter
B. outer perimeter 57. All but one are the Purposes/Objectives of Interrogation
C. extended perimeter a. To obtain valuable facts.
D. none of the above b. Eliminate the innocent.
c. To determine the veracity of the statement of
48. ________ which is where any evidence might have been the subject
thrown by the suspect while fleeing. d. Identify the guilty party; and
A. inner perimeter e. Obtain confession/admission
B. outer perimeter
C. extended perimeter 58. Is the skillful questioning of a hostile person suspecting of
D. none of the above having committed an offense or a person who is reluctant to
make a full disclosure of information in his possession which is
49. The immediate area where the crime was committed. pertinent to the investigation.
A. inner perimeter a. Interview
B. outer perimeter b. Investigative interview
C. extended perimeter c. Interrogation
D. none of the above d. Custodial investigation
50. An act defining certain rights of the person arrested, 59. The questioning of the suspect or person believed to have
detained. been committed a crime after he was taken into custody.
A. search and seizure a. Interview
B. properties subject to seizure b. Investigative interview
C. Section 1. Statement of Policy c. Interrogation
D. RA 7438 d. Custodial investigation
51. It is an order in writing issued in the name of the Philippine, 60.The interrogation of a friendly interrogee who has
signed by a judge and directed to a peace officer, commanding information at the direction of or under the control of the
him to search for any property described therein and bring it friendly intelligence service.
before the court. Read Art III, Sec. 2, 1987 Constitution. a. Debriefing
A. search and seizure b. Briefing
B. properties subject to seizure c. Orientation
C. Section 1. Statement of Policy d. Nota
D. RA 7438
61. This is a technique where the investigator, combining his
52. It is a form or technique in the conduct of interview upon skills of an actor and a psychologist, addresses the suspect with
willing and cooperative witnesses, where they are given the full an emotional appeal to confess. Devotees of a religion may
opportunity to narrate their accounts without intervention. belong to this type.
a. PRELIMINARY INTERVIEW a. FRIENDLINESS
b. OPEN INTERVIEW b. SYMPATHETIC APPROACH
c. UNSTRUCTURED INTERVIEW c. EMOTIONAL APPEAL
d. COGNITIVE INTERVIEW d. Nota
53. This is the uncooperative and indifferent subject. To deal 62. The investigator indicates he does not consider his subject’s
with them is to find out their field of interest indiscretion a grave offense.
a. The Drunken Type a. SHIFTING THE BLAME
b. Know-Nothing Type b. EXTENUATION
c. Disinterested Type c. BLUFF ON A SPLIT PAIR
d. NOTA d. Nota
54. These are the reluctant type of witnesses. They are found 63. These can be questions such as; “What happened?” or
among uneducated and of low level of intelligence. questions that begin by asking the suspect to “tell”, “explain”
a. The Drunken Type or “describe” some event or situation
b. Know-Nothing Type a. Open-ended Questions
c. Disinterested Type b. Closed Questions
d. NOTA c. Forced-choice Questions
d. Multiple Questions
55. These are the truthful and cooperative witnesses where the 64. This can easily confuse an interviewee and make the
investigator could rely upon, with little or no problem in answers given equally confusing to the interviewer. An example

would be to ask, “When did he say that and what did he do C. documenting the crime scene
‘and who else was present? D. arresting the suspect
a. Open-ended Questions
b. Closed Questions 74.In a crime of rape, its most likely place of commission
c. Forced-choice Questions cannot be specified unless the victim or witness pinpoints the
d. Multiple Questions same. What is considered critical observation to be done by the
investigator?
65. the word nearly expresses the meaning of collusion A. evidence to prove unconsciousness of the victim
a. decision B. all of these
b. continuation C. evidence to show sexual intercourse
c. conspiracy D. look for evidence of struggle
d. insulation
75. Which among the five human senses is considered the most
66. it is an official and initial inquiry concerning death cases objective?
under investigation? A. Hearing
a. homicide C. Tasting
b. parricide B. Smelling
c. infanticide D. Seeing
d. murder
76. What is best applied to a clumsy and nervous person, where
67. the forceful and intelligent questioning of one who is the investigators choosing propitious moments shout out a
reluctant to divulge information pertinent question and appears as though they themselves are
a. interview in rage?
b. interrogation A. Pretense
c. information C. Bluff
d. persuasion B. Bolt
D. Jolt
68. When a police officer arrives in a crime scene, what is his
fundamental duty? 77. What is frequently being used as a disguise by bank
A. preserve human life robbers?
B. cordon the area A. Hoods
C. summon emergency personnel C. Sunglass
D. apprehend the criminal B. Hats
D. Wigs
69. When may an accused move to quash the complaint or
information against him? 78. Which of the following is considered the most scientific
A. after he enters his plea approach of noticing that there is loss of public funds?
B. before he moves to dismiss the case A. By inspection and audit
C. before he enters his plea B. By information
D. before judgment C. By accident
D. Disappearance of the embezzler
70. What is the first thing that an investigator must do before
interviewing witnesses, citizens and victims? 79. If the crime committed was homicide, search for physical
A. place interviewee at ease evidence will be centered on which of the following?
B. conduct interview in private A. undercarriage and hood of car tool marks
C. develop a plan of action B. fingerprints nail and clothing
D. ask the right questions C. weapon and other types of evidence left as a result of
D. contact between victim and assailant
71. PO1 BOX is preparing a rough sketch of a homicide scene.
What should be given merit and importance? 80. In hostage survival, how do we increase the odds for
A. proper scale to be used hostage takers?
B. high grade of paper A. stay alert, collect and store information
C. no changes B. all of these
D. sketch be reprinted and improved C. control instinctive behavior and get small or non-
threatening
72. What are the “right questions” to ask a police interviewee D. analyze route of travel and don’t volunteer information
in any police investigation?
A. Ask hypothetical questions that would put interviewee at 81. What is called of that self- incriminatory statement by the
ease subject falling short of an acknowledgement of guilt?
B. Ask open- ended questions that would make him A. admission
relate in his own words what he saw C. confession
C. Check at all times whether questions are easy to B. informant
comprehend D. deposition
D. Ask close- ended questions, as they are simple, direct and
answerable by yes or no 82.How can a wound by bomb explosion be identified?
A. All of these
73. Which of the following is NOT part of preliminary B. Sharpnels all inner the body
investigation? C. Presence of powder burns in the body
A. weighing the evidence D. Severe tearing of clothing
B. securing the crime scene

83. . Which of the following areas must a police investigator a. Search warrant
consider important as he stands to testify as witness? b. Raiding team
A. Court procedure c. Firearms
c. human nature d. Back-up personnel
B. Rule of evidence
D. Court jurisdiction 94. A public officer when not being authorized by judicial
order, shall enter a dwelling against the will of the owner
84. The primary reason a finished sketch is made from a rough thereof is committing:
sketch is for _____________. a. Legal entry
A. scale and proportion b. Violation of domicile
C. future use c. Trespassing
B. accuracy and clarity d. Illegal entry
D. courtroom presentation
95. After developing the latent print found at the crime
85. Why must a party to a case, file a motion before the scene, it is best to lift it first then take photographs as a back
Supreme Court for a change of venue? record, is it a correct practice and do you agree with the
A. to avoid miscarriage of justice prober?
B. all of these A. yes
C. When public sentiment of the accused is hostile B. no
D. So the witness can free to reveal what they know about the C. maybe
case D. It depends
86. The best photograph of a bullet to be used for presentation 96. What would be the best camera position in taking
would be where the object photograph is ___________. photographs showing a view of what a witness might have
A. indicated by chalk marks seen?
B. untouched a. at 6 foot distance from the camera man
C. delineated by arrows b. parallel to the subject witness
D. in approximately enlarged c. overhead
d. at the eye level
87.PO11 has prepared a rough sketch of a homicide scene and
is now at his district. At this point it is most important that 97. There are two robbers who broke into a house and
_____________. carried away some valuables. After they left such house these
A. the proper scale be used two robbers decided to cut or divide the loot already so that
B. a high grade of paper and ink be used they can go of them . So while they are dividing the loot
C. no changes be made on the sketch the other robber noticed that the one doing the division is trying
D. this sketch be refined and improved to cheat him and so he immediately boxed him. Now this
robber who was boxed then pulled out his gun and fired at the
89. The majority of mistakes committed relative to evidence other one killing the latter. What crime is committed?
take place: a. Robbery and Murde
1. during periods of transportation b. Murder
2. in the collection of samples c. Robbery w/ Homicide
3. a contaminated sampling d. Homicide
4. the wrong type material
A. 1 and 2
C. 2 and 4 98. If a person had an enemy and killed him and after
B. 3 and 4 killing him, saw that he had a beautiful ring and took this, the
D. 2 and 3 crime would be?
a. Robbery and Murder
90. What crime is committed if the unlawful taking of personal b. Robbery and Theft
property belonging to another is committed with grave abuse c. Robbery w/ Homicide
of confidence? d. Murder
a. Robbery
b. Qualified Theft 99. A committed robbery but during the robbery he saw
c. Theft B a beautiful woman which he raped it. But B. pardoned A, and
d. Burglary they get married. What crime is committed?
A. Robbery
91. In criminal investigation metallurgy plays an B. Robbery w/ Rape
important application in: C. Robbery and Rape
a. Counterfeit coins D. NONE
b. Theft and Robbery 100. On a sari-sari store, a vehicle bumped the wall. The
c. Bombs and Explosives wall collapsed. There was a small opening there. At night, a
d. Restoration of tampered serial numbers man entered through that opening without breaking the same
and gets items there. What crime is committed?
92. It is the surprise invasion of building or an area. A. Robbery
a. Assault B. Theft
b. Attack C. Robbery w/ force upon things
c. Raid D. None
d. Surveillance
93. Primary requisite for conducting raids.

TRAFFIC MANAGEMENT AND ACCIDENT alcoholic drinks, what is that last test to be conducted?
INVESTIGATION 5 points
1. Holder of student driver's permit for the period of not less A. Balance Test
than______ can apply for professional driver's license. B. Symons test
A. 60 days C. Walk and turn test
B. 180 days D. Field Sobriety Test
C. 150 days
D. 30 days 12. A physical phenomenon relating to the manner in which
vehicles impede each other's progression as demand for limited
2. Marks left on the roadway by tires due to fast moving of road space approaches full capacity.
vehicle on a curve road. A. Heavy traffic
A. Scuff marks B. Traffic congestion
B. Skid marks C. Bottleneck
C. Centrifugal marks D. Blocked-up traffic
D. Debris
13. What is the slang term used in referring a narrow portion
3. What is the Validity period of Ordinance Violations Receipt of the roadway due to traffic congestion or where "build up"
upon issuance? usually occurs?
A. 48 hours A. Congestion
B. 72 hours B. Bottleneck
C. 96 hours C. Traffic Jam
D. 120 hours D. Gridlock
4. If a traffic law enforcer would decide to arrest a traffic law 14. When a holder of a driver's license needs to be
violator, what would not be his basis for such action? accompanied by a person with normal hearing, what should be
A. Detention is necessary to avoid continued violation indicated " condition" in his license:
B. The offender would attend the hearing A. B
C. The offense is serious B. D
D. There is reasonable doubt that the person will not appear in C. F
the court D. E
5. In traffic accident investigation, what must be used in order 15. If a driver is involved in a traffic accident, he must report
to prevent blurred image? to the nearest police station-
A. Single Lens Reflex (SLR) A. After 3 hours
B. Tripod B. Within 12 hours
C. Eye level C. Within 24 hours
D. Bird's eye view D. At once
6. Used when traffic enforcer observed a minor violation but 16. When sketching traffic accident, point of reference on the
preoccupied at a moment. road should be anything which are fixed or permanent in
A. Oral warning nature, while for the motor vehicles involved, the point of
B. Visual Warning reference should be-
C. Written warning A. Edge of the tire
D. Verbal warning B. Corner of the edges of the vehicle
C. Center of the axle
7. An enforcement action which the violator is commanded to D. Corner of the rear and front bumper
appear in court without detaining him.
A. Traffic citation 19. What kind of driver is one who shows a complete disregard
B. Traffic Arrest for others, aggressive, impatient, demanding and thoroughly
C. Traffic warning selfish in his actions affecting other drivers?
D. All of these A. Egotists
B. Defensive
8. The following are the important goals of Traffic Law C. Emotionals
Enforcement. D. Vociferous
I.To prevent traffic accidents II. To increase safety level
III. To increase traffic efficiency IV. To insure harmonious and 20. The occurrence in a sequence of events which usually
comfortable environment produces unintended injury, property damage or even death is
A. I, II and III only called:
B. I and II only a) accident
C. II, III and IV only c) damage
D. I, II, III and IV b) key event
d) fatal
10. What was the contribution of Etienne Lenoir as far as 21. Operating a motor vehicle on any highway or traffic
transporatation is concerned? way without reasonable caution considering the width, traffic,
A. Motor Vehicles grades, crossing, curvatures, visibility and other conditions of
B . Internal Combustion Engine the highway and the conditions of the atmosphere and
C. Pneumatic tires weather, thus, endangering the property or the safety or rights
D. Dandy Horse of any person or cause excessive or unreasonable damage to
the highway:
11. In determining whether a driver is under the influence of a) imprudence

c) negligence c) The general view of the road or intersection
b) reckless driving d) None of the above
d) reckless imprudence
31. As traffic investigator, what is the immediate action to
22. This connotes a deficiency of action. It implies a be undertaken at the scene:
failure in precaution or a failure to take the necessary a) Check for casualties
precaution once the danger or peril becomes foreseen: c) Check for hazards
a. imprudence c) negligence b) Interview witnesses
b. reckless driving d) reckless imprudence d) Call for assistance
23. This is something more than mere negligence in the 32. What term refers to the distance traveled before
operation of a motor vehicle where is willful and wanton applying the brakes?
disregard for the safety of others: a) Braking distance c)
a. imprudence c) negligence Reaction distance
b. reckless driving d) reckless imprudence b) Reaction time d)
Braking reaction
24. In prosecuting for reckless imprudence resulting in
damage to property, whether or not one of the drivers of the 33. A number representing the resistance to sliding of two
colliding automobiles is guilty of the offense is a question that surfaces in contract is known as:
lies in the manner and circumstances of the operation of the a. coefficient of friction
motor vehicle, and a finding of guilt beyond reasonable doubt b. traffic jam
requires the concurrence of the following elements: EXCEPT: c. attribute
a. that the offender has done or failed to do an act d. contract damage
b. that the act is voluntary
c. that the same is without malice 34. The first action taken by a traffic unit to escape from
d. that material damage results collision course or otherwise avoid a hazard
e. that there has been inexcusable lack of precaution on a. start of evasive action
the part of the offender b. point of possible perception
f. that the offender failed to extend help to his c. point of no escape
victim(s) d. final position
25. When cruising on a four-lane two-way highway, slow 35. When two vehicles approach an intersection at
moving vehicles should use the: approximately the same time, which shall have the right of
a) Lane 2 and 3 way?
b) Inner lanes a. The vehicle coming from the right
c) Outer lanes b. The vehicle coming from the center
d) Either the inner or outer lanes c. The vehicle coming from the left
d. The one which arrives there first
26. As a general rule, you should overtake on the left side,
except when: 35. Every device which is self-propelled and every vehicle which
a) The oncoming traffic is free from any obstruction is propelled by electric power obtained from overhead trolley
b) The opposite traffic is fee from oncoming motor wires, but not operated upon rails.
vehicles a. Skating
c) Traversing on a two-way two-lane highway b. Bicycle
d) Cruising along a four-lane two-way traffic way c. Tricycle
d. Motor vehicles
27. The double solid white line:
a) Doesn’t allow lane changing 36. Motor vehicle propelled by an internal combustion engine
b) Allows lane changing shall be equipped with a ____ as said motor vehicle passes
d) Allows parking through a street of any city, municipality or thickly populated
district or barrio.
28. Which of the following is a safe place for overtaking: a. wiper
a) Commercial places b. light
b) Expressways c. muffler
c) Rural highways d. windshield
d) Dry paved
37. A traffic police officer stationed the route of a parade has
29. When sketching traffic accident, the point of reference been ordered by his superior to allow no cars to cross the route.
on the road should be anything which are fixed or permanent While the parade is in progress, an ambulance driver on an
in nature, while for the motor vehicles involved, the point of emergency run attempts to drive his ambulance across the
reference should be: route while the parade is passing. Under these circumstances
a) Corner of the edges of the vehicle the traffic police officer should.
b) Corner of the rear and from bumper a. ask the driver to wait until the traffic police officer contact
c) Edge of the tire his superior and obtains decisions
d) Center of the axle (axis) b. stop the parade long enough to permit the
ambulance to cross the street
30. When the vehicles in the collision are damaged, the c. hold up the ambulance in accordance with the superior's
photograph should emphasize the: order
a) The direction of the motor vehicles d. direct the ambulance driver to the shortest detour which will
b) Close-up view of the damage add at least then minutes to run

47. It is tasked to enforce the Laws related on traffic, rule and
38. It is the entire width between the boundary lines of every regulation governing the
way that is publicly maintained and is open to the use of the registration of motor vehicles, operations of motor vehicle
public for purposes of vehicular travel: likewise the rules and regulations as provided by RA 4136?
a. Pavement A. DOTC
b. Highway B. LTFRB
c. Headway C. LTO
d. Embankment D. TMG
39. This refers to the number of vehicles occupying a specific 48. The “science of measuring traffic and travel, study of the
length of a roadway at a given instant: basic laws” related to the traffic law and generation?
a. Density A. Traffic Engineering
b. Volume B. Traffic Enforcement
c. Gravity C. Traffic Education
d. Number of units D. Traffic Economy
40. It is an object or vehicle on the road that hinders or prevent 49. A device mounted or on portable support where a message
the smooth flow of traffic: is conveyed by means of words or symbols, officially erected or
a. Obstruction installed for the purpose of regulating, warning or guiding
b. Hindrance traffic, usually made of metal plate in a conspicuous location
c. Hazard beside a road?
d. Debris A. Traffic or Road signs
B. Pavement or Road Markings or Markers
41. While approaching an intersection, the green traffic light is C. Traffic light signals or traffic signals
on, however, a police officer suddenly proceed to the center D. Traffic Island
and signals a motorist to stop. What should the motorist do?
a. Ignore the police officer and proceed with caution 50. The process of training road users to the avoidance and
b. Ignore the traffic light and come to a full stop prevention in traffic- related accidents?
c. Ignore both the police officer and traffic light and cross the A. Road Safety
intersection B. Traffic Enforcement
d. Ignore the police officer and stop only when second signal C. Traffic Education
is made D. Traffic Safety Education
42. When traversing on a solid yellow or white line with a 51. The basic types of instruction method used in driver
dotted yellow or white line, you can overtake only education program were the subject is placed in conditions
a. the solid line is in your lane. which will be relatively analogous to normal behavior?
b. the dotted line is in your lane. A. Comprehensive
c. Oncoming traffic from the opposite direction is free from B. Traditional instruction
any hazard. C. Commentary driving method
d. the oncoming traffic is visible that no vehicle or whatsoever D. Simulated/ pretended conditions On and Off the
is coming from the opposite direction. road training
43. It was them who brought road building to its highest point 52. The function of traffic enforcement identified as part of
of perfection in ancient times: traffic law enforcement performed by the police and other
a. Romans agencies with police power including deterrent violation
b. Arabs created by uniformed police officer and their special
c. Chinese equipment, special assistance to courts and prosecutors and
d. Greeks 2 incidental service to highway users
A. Police enforcement process
44. How do you call a person, with a valid driver’s license, on B. Police traffic law enforcement
board a motor vehicle? C. Court traffic law enforcement
a. Driver D. Detection
b. Passenger
c. Motorist 53. This type of citation ticket has duration of 72 hours or 3
d. Pedestrian days from the date of apprehension and shall be submitted by
the traffic constable for final disposition to the commissioner
45. What enforcement action will not result to legal and his deputies within 24 hours and redeemed from LTO by
consequence(s)? the erring driver?
a. Warning A. Temporary operators permit (TOP)
b. Apprehension B. Traffic violation receipt (TVR)
c. Impounding C. Written warning
d. Issuance of citation ticket D. Temporary permit operators (TPO)
46 It is tasked to regulate the transport route, franchising, 54. AN ACT STRENGTHENING CONSUMER PROTECTION IN
prescribe fare rate and to investigate traffic cases? THE PURCHASE OF BRAND NEW MOTOR VEHICLES
A. DOTC a. RA 10640
B. LTFRB B. RA 10630
C. LTO C. RA. 10642
D. MMDA D. RA 10632

55. What is the MOST common cause of vehicular accident in understanding the unusual or unexpected movement or
the Philippines? condition that could be taken as sign of an accident about to
A. Hard-headedness of the pedestrians happen. What was the question defined?
B. Under the influence of liquor/drugs a. Perception of hazards
C. Disregard traffic rules b. Start evasive action
D. Defective brakes c. Initial contact
d. Maximum engagement
56. In hit and run cases, how do you compare paint chips
mechanically? By what? 65. Defined by the legislators’ in some special laws that are
A. Chemical analysis related to traffic laws, as “the act of drivers in failing to stop
B. Piecing together or matching after a road or traffic accident” is called ________
C. Cross analysis a. Hit and run
D. Spectrographic analysis b. Run it and hit it
c. Hit it and run it
57. Under traffic operation and accident investigation, it was d. Hitting and running
defined as the movement of persons, goods, or vehicles, either
powered by combustion system or animal drawn, from one 66. The basic principle behind selective enforcement in traffic
place to another for purposes of travel. What is being defined? control is
a. Trafigo a. selection of geographical areas for strict
b. Trafica enforcement
c. Taraffic accident b. concentration of enforcement activities at peak traffic hours
d. Traffic c. a shifting emphasis on different types of violations
d. a warning rather than a citation will act as preventive
58. The occurrence involving traffic units on a traffic way measure for future violation
resulting to damage of property, injury, or possible death is
called ____? 67. It deals with the study of the changing urban environment
a. Traffic accident due to the scale and density of new urban concentration.
b. Traffic incident a. Traffic Education
c. Erring accident b. Traffic Enforcement
d. Erring drivers collision c. Traffic Engineering
d. Traffic Environment
59. Any part of the traffic way is opened to the public as matter
of _____ or _____. 68. Motor vehicles registered under this classification shall not
a. Right, privilege be used for hire under any circumstances.
b. Right, custom a. Diplomatic
c. Privilege, custom b. Government
d. Right, right c. Private
d. For hire 4
60. Any motor vehicle accident occurring on a traffic way is
called? 69. It shall mean any motor vehicle with a trailer having no
a. Motor vehicle traffic accident front axle and so attached that part of the trailer rest upon the
b. Motor vehicle non-traffic accident motor vehicle.
c. Non-motor vehicle traffic accident a. Articulated Vehicle
d. Fatal accident b. Vehicle
c. Motor Vehicle
61. Motor vehicular accident that results death to one or more d. Trailers
persons. What is being asked?
a. Non-motor vehicle traffic accident 70. He perfected the Macadamized road system in England:
b. Fatal accident a. John road
c. Non-fatal accident b. John Palmer
d. Damage to property accident c. John Mc Adam
d. John Negroponte
62. Among the following given choices, what is the example of
non-collision on road? 71. The inter-link between municipalities and within the city
a. Over turning proper with a right of way of 15 meters.
b. Pedestrian a. Provincial Road
c. Park motor vehicle b. Barangay Road
d. Bicycle c. Municipal Road
d. City RoaD
63. In the chain of events in vehicular accidents this is
generated when a critical space-motion relationships between 72. A marked stretch of road or street, designated solely for
a traffic unit and another object develops due to the movement the purpose of passing or overtaking:
of either or both? a. Passing lane
a. Perception of hazards b. Shoulder
b. Start evasive action c. Pavement
c. Initial contact d. Curb
d. Hazards
73. These signs are intended to inform road users of special
64. When we speak of chain of events in vehicular accidents, obligations, instructions or prohibitions which motorists must
the ____ is defined as seeing feeling, or hearing and comply:

a. Regulatory B. 90 days
b. Place identification C. 60 days
c. Danger warning D. 3 years
d. Bus and Jeepney stop
86. Wheel is believed to be originated in
74. This refers to the authorized or unauthorized use of the A. Western Asia
opposite lane of a two ways or separated road: B. America
a. Counter flow C. Africa
b. Overtaking D. Europe
c. Passing through
d. Swerving 87. If the plate number of a motor vehicle is TGP 984, what
month should it be registered?
74. An elevated structure built for the safety of the pedestrians A. April
in crossing busy highways: (June 2019 Board Exam Question) B. May
a. Flyover C. June
b. Skyway D. July
c. Underpass
d. Overpass 88. The entire width between boundary lines of every way or
place of which any part is open to the use of the public for
76. The three pillars of traffic management: purposes of vehicular traffic as a matter of right or custom.
a. Engineering, education, enforcement A. Traffic way C. Traffic units
b. Engineering, education, environment B. Road way D. Subway
c. Engineering, education, economics
d. Engineering, economics, environment 89. What is the primary aim of driver instruction programs?
A. To teach the rudiments of driving
77. Over speeding can cause traffic accident and we attribute B. To instill awareness of one’s legal and moral responsibilities
the same to in traffic
a. Unworthy vehicle C. To teach the abilities required for one to be eligible for a
b. Human error driving license
c. Traffic error D. To help the learners know the basic of traffic rules and
d. Road deficiency regulations
78. What is the Protocol Plate number of a Chief Justice? 90. Used when traffic enforcer observed a minor violation but
A. 1 preoccupied at a moment.
B. 3 A. visual warning C. verbal warning
C. 5 B. written warning D. oral warning
D. 8
91. Considered as emergency vehicle, except:
79. The 10th or the last Commandment of traffic is A. Police car on call C. Ambulance on call
A. Keep right B. Fire truck on call D. Physician’s car
B. The Philosophy of Pinoy Driver
C. Safety First 92. Marks left on the roadway by tires when the brakes were
D. Observe Traffic Management Measures applied strongly, hence the wheels locked, and not free to
rotate.
82. It is the 1st Commandment of traffic. A. skid marks C. scuff marks
A. Keep right B. key event D. debris
B. The Philosophy of Pinoy Driver
C. Safety First 93. Before making a U-turn, make a right turn signal
D. Observe Traffic Management Measures _______before you start moving to the right side of the road
a. at least 100 m
83. Motor trucks and buses on open country roads, with no b. at least 100 ft.
“blinds corners” not closely bordered by habitations have a c. at least 10 ft.
maximum allowable speed of d. at least 10m
A. 50km/h
B. 80km/h 94. A certain intersection, for several reasons, has more traffic
C. 40km/h accidents than any other part in the area. The Police unit
D. 30km/h assignment to the area should.
A. Park near the intersection, in plain view, and wait for
84. From the bottom, what is the arrangement of color of the violators.
traffic light? B. Park your motorcycle at the center of intersection to caution
A. red, yellow, green motorist
B. green, red, yellow C. Park near the intersection, more or less hidden from view
C. green, amber, red D. Cruise all the assigned area but give extra attention
D. red, green, yellow to the intersection
85. Bonafide tourist and transients who are duly licensed to 95. Any person using a traffic way for travel, parking or other
operate motor vehicles in their respective countries may be purposes as a pedestrian or driver, including any vehicle, or
allowed to operate motor vehicles during their stay but not animal which he is using.
beyond? a. Pedestrian
A. 12 months b. Motorists

c. Traffic users b. Intentional fire
d. Traffic unit c. Unnatural fire
d. Accidental fire
96. The following are the three E’s of traffic management,
except 6. Fire stage that has the highest rate of intensity.
a. Economy a. Incipient
b. Engineering b. Free burning
c. Enforcement c. Smoldering
d. Education d. Initial
e. Nota
7. Decomposition of matter in reaction to heat.
97. Provides that where both parties are negligent but the a. Thermal balance
negligent act of one is appreciably later in point of time than b. Oxidation
that of the other, or where it is impossible to determine whose c. Burning
fault or negligence brought about the occurrence of the d. Pyrolysis
incident.
a. The doctrine of right of way 8. As the product of combustion rises in a building or flows out
b. The doctrine of last clear chance of an opening an equal volume of air replaces them. If during
c. Last clear chance extinguishments, water is distributed in such a manner as to
d. Right of way upset the thermal balance, a condition will appear known as:
a. Explosion of steam
98. This principles refers to the legal or customary precedence b. Thermostat
which allows one vehicle to cross or pass in front of another. c. Thermal imbalance
a. The doctrine of right of way d. Sudden burst of fire
b. The doctrine of last clear chance
c. Last clear chance 9. Means employed to pacify the fire.
d. Right of way a. Fire prevention
b. Fire safety
99. Whenever the load of any vehicle extends _____beyond c. Fire control
the bed or body, there shall be displayed at every projecting d. Fire suppression
end of such load a red flag not less than thirty centimeters both
in length and width 10. What is a normally open device installed inside an air duct
a. More than two meter system which automatically closes to restrict the passage of
b. More than one meter smoke or fire?
c. More than two centimeter A. fire exit
d. More than one centimeter B. damper
C. fire trap
100. In lieu of the required red flags from the question above, D. fire alarm
there shall be displayed red lights visible_________
a. at least ten meters away 11. Known as the “Fire Code of the Philippines”.
b. at least thirty meters away a. RA 6975
c. at least fifty meters away b. RA 9263
d. at least 100 meters away c. RA 9514
d. PD 1613
FIRE PROTECTION AND ARSON INVESTIGATION 12. Known as the 4th element of fire
a. Fuel
1. Government’s office mandated by RA 6975 to suppress b. Heat
destructive fires, implements the fire code and investigates all c. Uninhibited chemical reaction
fires cases in the Philippines d. Oxygen Reciprocal
a. BFP
b. PNP 13. Most arson cases are proved by__________________
c. BJMP evidence rather than that direct evidence.
d. Bureau of Fire in the Phillippines a. Circumstantial
b. Documentary
2. Product of combustion which combustible materials and c. Testimonial
oxidizing agents react to heat. d. Physical
a. Fire
b. Fire Gases 14. To establish the prima facie evidence of arson, the total
c. Smoke insurance carried on the building and/or goals is more than
d. Flame ________ of the value of such building and/or goods at the
time of the fire.
3. Means employed to avoid the occurrence of fire. a. 60%
a. Fire Suppression b. 50%
b. Fire Control c. 80%
c. Fire Inspection d. 90%
d. Fire prevention
15. When carbon monoxide is absent in the blood of the dead
4. Caused by volcanic eruption or humidity. body found in a burned structure, this will be a strong
a. Providential fire circumstantial evidence that the person:

a. Was dead when the fire began D. conduction
b. Was killed by someone else during the blaze
c. Was still alive before the fire 24.Which of the following does NOT fall under class A fires?
d. Died due to suffocation A. none of the choices
B. burning nipa hut
16. A popular chemical element used by the arsonist to hide C. exploding gas depot
the odor of flammable liquids. D. forest fire
a. Sulfides
b. Nitrates 25.Which of the following best illustrate arson?
c. Sulfur A.simultaneous fire
d. Ammonia B.thick reddish smoke
C.faulty electric wiring
16. When fire occurred, the first action upon discovery is: D.unexplained explosion
a. Run for life
b. Raise the alarm 23.Why water is prohibited to quench Class D fires?
c. Pack up personal belongings A.water is not capable of extinguishing the fire
d. Call an ambulance B.there is the danger of electrocution
C.burning metals are too hot
D.explosion may occur
17. It is used to include not only architects responsible for the
design and erection of a complete building but also the various 27.Mechanical device strategically located in an installation or
specialist engineers who may be concerned with the structure, street where fire hose is connected so that water with pressure
the electrical installation, the heating ventilation system and so will be available to extinguish fire.
on. A. fire hose box
a. Building contractors B. fire truck
b. Designers C. hose reel
c. Office of building permits D. fire hydrant
d. Building planner
28.In scientific terms, the fuel in a combustion reaction is
18. What is the constant temperature at which the vapor known as ___.
pressure of the liquid is equal to the atmospheric pressure? A. reducing agent
A. vapor density B. oxidizing agent
B. fire point C. cooling agent
B. boiling point D. chemical agent
D. vapor pressure
29. This is the normal/ common behavior of fire in a building:
19. It is a combustion product and a manifestation of fire when A.It only moves horizontally
it is in its gas-phased combustion. B.It has a circular movement
A. Flames C.It moves sideways while moving vertically
B. Exothermic reaction D.It has a circular movement while moving horizontally
C. Endothermic reaction
D. NONE 30.A sudden introduction of air into a closed space containing
an oxygen-starved superheated product of incomplete
20.What type of Flame is orange-red, deposit soot at the combustion or oxygen-deficient free radicals, may result to an
bottom or a vessel being heated due to incomplete combustion explosion, which is called:
and has a low temperature. A. Spontaneous ignition
A. Luminous B. flashover
B. Non-luminous C. Backdraft
C. Laminar D. Flash fire
D. Turbulent
31.It refers to the increase or rising of amperage while electric
21. The cause of the majority of fire deaths is ____. current is flowing in a transmission line resulting to the damage
A. Infection or destruction of insulating materials, maybe gradual or rapid,
C. shock internal or external.
B. burns A. Arcing
D. asphyxiation B. Induced Current
C. Over Heating
22.What kind of gas exists solely in the gaseous state under D. sparkling
pressure and at normal atmospheric temperature inside its
container? 32.The most common motive for arson is
A. cryogenic gas A. jealousy
B. liquefied gas B. profit
C. compressed gas C. spite
D. nuclear gas D. revenge
23.When heat is transmitted in circulating medium, the method 33.Which of the following is “prima facie” existence of arson?
is called ____. A.inflammable substance found in the premises
A. radiation B.simultaneous fire in more than one part of the building
B. oxidation C.building insurance
C. convection D.any of the choices

A.The stream is projected farther
34.What is the process of raising the temperature to separate B.The surrounding air is cool making the firemen comfortable
the on-volatile from the less volatile parts and then cooling and C.A backward force is developed which must be counter
condensing the resulting vapor so as to produce a nearly acted
purified substance? D.The firemen can see better when the stream strikes
A. combustion
B. evaporation 44.If arson is only the means of killing the victim, the crime
C. distillation that you have to file is:
D. condensation A. murder with arson
B. arson with murder
35.What is the instrument used to open and close a fire C. murder
hydrant? D. arson
A. hydrant key
B. key board 45.This kind of Fire extinguisher contains chemical powder
C. fire hose intended to fight all classes of fires.
D. jumper A. H20
B. Liquefied
36.What equipment is made of trussed or solid beam where C. Dry Chemical
rungs are connected horizontally to the beam forming ascent D. Soda Acid
or descent?
A. rope 46.All except one are aggravating circumstances in Arson.
B. hydrant A.If committed with intent to gain:
C. ladder B.If committed with the benefit of another:
D. nozzle C.If the offender is motivated by spite or hatred towards the
owner or occupant of the property burned:
37.What are the cross members between the beam and used D.If committed by a syndicate
in climbing the ladder called? E.None of the Above
A. hangar
B. beams 47.What color of smoke is present when the materials burning
C. rungs are Phosphorus, vegetable or hay?
D. braces A. Black
B. White
38.Aware of the common modus operandi of arson cases in our C. Yellow
midst, which of the following facilities should you check? D. Blue
A.Gift-wrapped packages
B.Electric switch system 48.After the fire fighting operation and fire out has been
C.Telephones declared, what is the first thing that a fire prober must
D.All of these determine?
A.look for survivors
39.The clearing of smoke and heated gases at the highest point B.search for debris
of the roof is referred to as: C.locate the point of origin
A. vertical ventilation D.established corpus delicti
B. cross ventilation
C. forced ventilation 49. The threat to arson investigators after fire has been
D. horizontal ventilation contained.
a. Backdraft
40.If a high wind has an extinguishing effect on a fire, the most b. Flashover
probable extinguishing method is: c. Carbon monoxide poisoning
A. smothering d. Falling debris
B. fuel removal
C. cooling 50. Color smoke produced accompanied by red flames
D. dilution indicates the burning of what material?
e. Rubber
41.The most important element of Fire? f. Nitrogen products
A.Fuel g. Asphalt singles
B.Chemical chain reaction h. Chlorine
C.Heat
D.Oxygen 51. Which among the following is commonly used in fire
resistant materials?
42.A complete and detailed checked of the structures and i. Asbestos
material involved in the fire to make sure that every spark and j. Diamond
ember has been extinguished and to have assurance against k. Asphalt
A. Overhaul l. Cotton
B. Rescue
C. Salvage 52.A form of static electricity of great magnitude producing
D. None tremendous amperage and voltage, it is the most common
cause of providential fires.
43.When firemen are working at the nozzle of a hose they m. Rays of the sun
usually lean forward on the hose. What is the most likely reason n. Spontaneous heating
for taking this position? o. Arcing

p. Lighting 63. .What type of ground ladder which contains only one
section, it ranges between 12 to 16 feet.
53.Most common source of accidental fire is related to: A. Straight ladder
q. Smoking B. Attic ladder
r. Arcing C. Extension ladder
s. Sparkling D. Wall ladder
t. Overloading
64. Highly flammable chemicals that are used to facilitate
54.A device used by arsonists to spread the fire within the room flame propagation.
or throughout the structure. A. Plant
u. Accelerant B. Trailer
v. Plants C. Accelerant
w. Trailer D. Gasoline
x. Wick
65. Eyes and Ears of Fire Prober.
55.Usually comes in form of combustible liquid which is a A. Witness
contrivance to hasten the start of fire. B. Society
y. Accelerant C. First responder
z. Plants D. Owner
aa. Trailer
bb. Wick 66. The following are components of fire except one:
56.Most common reason of arson cases. A. Gas

cc. Revenge B. Fuel
dd. Profit C. Oxygen
ee. Competition D. Heat
ff. All of the foregoing
67. It is observed in structural fires and can be an
57.Result of slow oxidation of a combustible material. indicator of the fire travel and point of origin.
gg. Spontaneous heating
hh. Combustible gases E. Charring
ii. Combustible dust F. Alligatoring
jj. None of the choices G. V pattern
H. Pour pattern
58.Refers to the preparation and gathering of materials to start
a fire. 68. A pattern or network of fine, irregular lines in glass
kk. Plants and wood.
ll. Trailers
mm. Accelerants I. Crazing
nn. Wick J. Spalling
K. Light bulbs
59.Act that would remove or neutralize a fire hazard. L. Charring
oo. Abatement
pp. Combustion 69. A tool employed by an arsonist to delay the start of
qq. Allotment the fire and allow him to establish an alibi.
rr. Distillation
M. Accelerants
N. delaying tactic
60.Any liquid fuel with flash point above 37.80C (1000F) is a: O. timing device
A. Combustible liquid P. stopper
B. Corrosive liquid
C. Flammable liquid 70. It can be readily identified by their distinctive odors,
D. Volatile liquid and the most common examples are gasoline, turpentine and
kerosene.
61.A burned body found was subjected to autopsy; however a.Accelerants
examination of lungs and blood showed no abnormal quantity b. Trailers
of carbon monoxide or dioxide, what will be your interpretation c. timing device
under such circumstance? d. Stopper
A.The person died because of asphyxia
B.The person died because of the burning 71. Any material having a flash point at or above 37.80
C.The person was killed before it was burned degree Celsius or 100 degree Fahrenheit.
D.The person died not of fire but because of suffocation
a. combustible liquid
62.What type of ladder is best suited for firefighting operation b. flammable liquid
involving high-rise building? c. inflammable liquid
A. attic d. corrosive liquid
B. extension
C. aerial 72. Any liquid that causes fire when in contact with
D. hook organic matter.

a. combustible liquid 81. Shall have the full responsibility and power to investigate
b. flammable liquid fire incidents with a total amount of damage not exceeding to
c. inflammable liquid thirty million pesos.
d. corrosive liquid a. Municipal Fire Marshal
b. City Fire Marshal
73. An extremely hot luminous bridge formed by the c. District Fire Marshal Level
passage of an electric current across the space between two
conductors. 82. Provincial Fire Marshal It is a device used to compress a fire
hose so as to stop water flow.
a. electrical arc A. Hose Jacket
b. damper B. Hose Liner
c. duct system C. Hose Clamp
d. ember D. Hose Roller
74. The active principle of burning, characterized by the 83. It is a device used to stop leaks in a fire hose or to joint
heat and light combustion. hoses that have damaged couplings.
A. Hose Jacket
a. explosion B. Hose Liner
b. arson C. Hose Clamp
c. combustion D. Hose Roller
d. fire
84. The act of burning any archive, museum, whether public or
75. This activity involves developing and defining systematic private or any edifice devoted to
course of actions that maybe performed in order to realize the culture, education, or social services shall be prosecuted as:
objectives of fire protection: involves the process of A. Destructive Arson
establishing the SOP in case fire breaks out. B. Simple Arson
a. PRE-FIRE PLANNING C. Other Cases of Arson
b. EVALUATION – SIZE – UP D. None of the above
c. EVACUATION
d. ENTRY 85. It is a motive in arson characterized by social, political, or
religious causes.
76. Any action taken by the firefighters to remove occupants/ A. Excitement
persons from building/ hazards to a safety place B. Vandalism
a. SALVAGE C. Crime Concealment
b. RESCUE D. Extremism
c. EVACUATION
d. Nota 86. It is a piece of metal or an electrical conductor used to
bypass a safety device in an electrical
77. The activity of protecting the properties from preventable system.
damage other than the fire. A. Jumper
a. SALVAGE B. Damper
b. RESCUE C. Hose Box
c. EVACUATION D. Smelting
d. Nota
87. William already placed gasoline-soaked rags beside the wall
78. This the activity of transferring people, livestock, and of Happy Ending Spa but was caught by Kurt before he could
property away from the burning area to minimize damage or strike the match to burn the building. William committed arson
destruction that the fire might incur in case it propagates to at what stage?
other adjacent buildings. A. Frustrated
a. SALVAGE B. Attempted
b. RESCUE C. Belated
c. EVACUATION D. Consumated
d. Nota
88. Out of anger, because his younger brother was mauled by
79. This is the activity of restricting the fire at the place (room) the neighbor jojo, Juwil burned the house of jojo who unknown
where it started : the process of preventing fire from extending to him was sleeping in the said house during that time. As an
from another section or form one section to another section of Arson Investigator you will charge Juwil with _________.
the involved building. A. Arson with Murder
a. EXPOSURE B. Murder only
b. CONFINEMENT C. Arson and Murder
c. ABATEMENT D. Arson only
d. FIRE PROTECTION
89. This usually indicates the type of burning materials.
80. A method whereby a device such as smoke ejector is A. Color of Flame
utilized to remove faster excessive heat and dense smoke B. Size of Blame
a. Vertical ventilation C. Color of Smoke
b. Cross or horizontal ventilation D. Size of Fire
c. Mechanical force ventilation
d. NOTA 90. If conflagration is only the means of killing the victim, the
crime that you have to file is:

A. Arson when one portion of an object is heated.*
B. Murder A. Conduction
C. Murder with arson B. Convection
D. Arson with murder C. Radiation
D. Heat transfer
91. Faulty electrical wiring includes the following except:
A. Pressing DRUG EDUCATION AND VICE CONTROL
B. Leaking gas pipe
C. Low Line Capacity 1. This method of control and prevention of prostitution
D. Improve Voltage maintains the idea that we cannot do away with prostitution
unless we consider the problems and remove the causes of
92. What is the most common motive in Arson Cases? prostitution.
A. Intimidation
B. Economic Gain a. THE SCHOOL OF REGULATORY CONTROL
C. Punitive Measure
b. THE SCHOOL OF TOTAL REPRESSION
D. Concealment of Crime
c. All of the above
93. The heat energy derived from nuclear energy by the
splitting of atoms is known as: d. Nota
A. Fission
B. Radiation 2. The term "Ecstasy" is used for a group of "designer" drugs
C. Ignition closely related in chemical form to the amphetamine family of
D. Fusion illicit drugs. Its scientific name is:
94. The fire extinguisher contains of _______. a. Methamphetamine Hydrochloride

a. 4% foam 96% water
b. 94% water 6% foam b. Papaver somniferum
c. 50% foam 50% Water c. Methylenedioxymethamphetamine
d. 25% foam 75% Water
d. Cannabis sativa
95. Passageway from building to another or through or around
a wall in approximately the same floor level.
a. smelting
b. fulminate 3. A laboratory examination is only required to apprehended
c. vestibule offender within 24 hours if the person arrested has:
d. horizontal exit
A. Visible manifestation that suspect was under the influence
96. The ____ shall be conducted as a pre-requisite to grant of drugs
permits and/or license by local governments or other
B. Physical sign of drug abuse
government agencies.*
A. Fire safety inspection C. Symptoms of Drug abuse
B. Fire protection assembly
C. Fire D. All of the above
D. Fire service
97. A burned body found was subjected to autopsy; however

examination of lungs and blood showed no abnormal quantity 4. Known as the “Father of Medicine” . He prescribed opium
of carbon monoxide or dioxide, what will be your interpretation poppy juice in surgery which was cultivated by the
under such circumstances? * ** Summerrians during 7000 BC.
A. The person died because of the burning
B. The person died of asphyxia a. Hippocrates c. Confucious
C. The person was killed before it was burned
b. Morpreus d. Socrates
D. The person died not of fire but because of suffocation
5. Chinese Emperor who prohibited the trading of opium in
98. A fatal condition that takes place when the fire resists China by the British Indies that lead to the Opium War of 1840.
extinguishment operations and become stronger and bigger
instead.* A. Lao Tzu C. Yung Chen
A. Biteback
B. Backdraft B. Sun Tzu D. Mao Zedong
C. Flash Fire
D. Flashover 6. Considered as the most powerful natural stimulant.
A. Tetrahydrocannabinnol
99. Which of the following shall cause the investigator to
assume that the victim died of direct contact with flame?* B. Cocaine hydrochloride
a. Presence of soot and fire gases at respiratory tract
b. Prominence of trauma that is probably caused by a stab C. Methamphetamine Hydrochloride
c. Intense charring of the whole body
d. None of the above D. Methylenedioxymethamphetamine
100. The form of heat transfer that takes place within solids

7. The possession of equipment, instrument, apparatus and 13. The following shall undergo Mandatory Drug Testing
other paraphernalia fit or intended for any of the purposes according to R.A. 9165, EXCEPT.
enumerated under R.A. 9165 shall be:
A. Officers and Employee of public and private offices.
A. Probable cause that the possessor has smoked, consumed,
administered to himself/herself, injected, ingested or used a B. Applicant for firearms license and for permit to carry firearms
dangerous drug and shall be presumed to have violated Section outside residence.
15 of R.A. 9165 as to the use of dangerous drugs C. Officers and Members of the Military, police and other law
B. Prima facie evidence that the possessor has smoked, enforcement agencies.
consumed, administered to himself/herself, injected, D. All persons charged before the prosecutor’s office with a
ingested or used a dangerous drug and shall be criminal offense having an imposable penalty of not less than
presumed to have violated Section 15 of R.A. 9165 as six (6) years and one (1) days.
to the use of dangerous drugs
14. White crystalline powder with very bitter numbering taste
C. Conclusive evidence that the possessor has smoked, and said to be one of the strongest derivatives of Opium poppy.
consumed, administered to himself/herself, injected, ingested
or used a dangerous drug and shall be presumed to have A. Morphine C. Codeine
violated Section 15 of R.A. 9165 as to the use of dangerous
drugs B. Heroin D. Cocaine
D. Circumstantial evidence that the possessor has smoked, 15. It is any immoral conduct or habit, the indulgence of which
consumed, administered to himself/herself, injected, ingested leads to depravity, wickedness and corruption of the minds and
or used a dangerous drug and shall be presumed to have body.
violated Section 15 of R.A. 9165 as to the use of dangerous
A. Prostitution C. Drug addiction
drugs
B. Gambling D. Vice
16. Cocaine is from South America; ivory white heroin is from;

8. What will be the disposition in a case where minor is
convicted for the possession of dangerous drugs? a. The Golden Crescent c. Hongkong
A. Judgment will be suspended C. Sentence will b. The Golden Triangle d. Silver Triangle
be suspended
17. Transhipment point of all forms of heroin in the world.
B. Turn-over to DSWD D. None of the
above a. Japan c. Philippines
9. A person found guilty of use of dangerous drugs for the first b. Hongkong d. Burma
time shall be punished with:
18. Cocaine has originated from Columbia; Shabu originated
A. Imprisonment of 6 yrs and one day to 12 years from:
B. Rehabilitation of a minimum period of 6 months a. Japan c. Mexico
C. Rehabilitation for 6 months to 18 months b. China d. India
D. Imprisonment of at least 6 months 19. The Golden Triangle is controlled by the Triad; the
Colombian and Peruvian drug trafficking was controlled by:
10. What drug classification are solvents, paints and gasoline
which are examples of substances that are sniffed to obtain a. The Mafia c. Medellin Cartel
intoxication fall?
b. La Cosa Nostra d. Chinese Mafia
A. Depressants C. Energizers
20. Principal source of all forms of cocaine
B. Tranquilizers D. Inhalants
a. South East Asia c. Middle East
11. Operation of drug syndicates are usually made secretly that
b. South America d. South West Asia
makes it detection quite difficult. Various techniques were
made by its operator in concealing their activities. 21. The major transshipment point for international drug
traffickers in Europe and known to be the “Paradise of Drug
A. Hide –out operation C. Clandestine
Users” in this continent
Operation
a. Portugal c. Germany
B. Disguised operation D. Confidential
b. Spain d. Turkey
12. Also known as Papaver Somniferum and considered as the
mother drugs of other narcotics substance. 22. Which of the following is not untrue?
A. Codeine C. Morphine a. The DDB shall have the custody of all dangerous drugs
confiscated
B. Heroin D. Opium Poppy

b. The DDB cause the filing of the appropriate civil action for 31. The major transshipment point for international drug
violation of RA 9165 while the PDEA takes care to criminal traffickers in Europe and known to be the “Paradise of Drug
aspects Users” in this continent
c. The DDB promulgates rules and regulations related a. Portugal c. Germany

to drugs which are usually implemented by PDEA
b. Spain d. Turkey
d. . The DDB is the implementing arm of the PDEA in the
enforcement of the prohibitory provisions of RA 9165 32. it is a club drug popularly known as Special K, Vitamin K
and Kitkat developed in the 1970’s as an anesthetics mainly
23. Who shall handle the prosecution of drug related cases? used by veterinarians.
a. Public Attorney’s Office a. Flunitrazepam

b. Gamma hydroxybutyrate
b. Ombudsman c. Ketamine hydrochloride
d. All of the above
c. National Prosecution Service
33. A French researcher named Dr. Henry Laborit was the first
d. Special Prosecutor designated by the DOJ
to synthesize this substance which was found to occur naturally
24. What court has the jurisdiction to hear and try drug cases? in many mammalian cells. It has the street names Blue Nitro,
EZ Lay and Zonked.
a. Heinous Crime Court designated by the SC among
the existing RTC a. Flunitrazepam
b. Special Court designated by the SC c. Ketamine hydrochloride
d. All of the above
c. Sandiganbayan
34. A powerful benzodiazepine developed in the 1960’s by
d. Special Court designated by the SC among
Hoffman Laroche inc., and first marketed under the trade name
the existing RTC
Rohypnol in Switzerland in 1975.
25. Samples of the seized dangerous drugs shall be
a. Flunitrazepam
destroyed_________ after the promulgation of judgment.
a. 2 days c. 24 hours c. Ketamine hydrochloride
d. All of the above
b. 1 day d. 48 hours
35. it is the compulsive, excessive and self-damaging use of
26. Decision of the court whether the person is guilty or not habit forming drugs or substances leading to addiction or
guilty for drug trafficking shall be rendred within the period of dependence causing serious physiological injury and harm or
___________ after the trial. death.
a. 15 days c. 10 days a. Drug addiction

b. Drug dependence
b. 30 days d. 6 days c. Substance abuse
27. Transhipment point of all forms of heroin in the world. d. All of the above
a. Japan c. Philippines 36. A type of alcoholic beverage with an alcohol content

ranging from 4 to 8 percent.
b. Hongkong d. Burma
a. Beer
b. Cider
c. Wine
28. Cocaine has originated from Columbia; Shabu originated d. Liqueurs
from:
37. This is a class of depressants, a drug that reduces a persons
a. Japan c. Mexico ability to think rationally and distorts his or her judgment. Ethyl
or ethanol is used in this kind of depressant,
b. China d. India
a. Barbiturates
29. The Golden Triangle is controlled by the Triad; the
b. Benzodiazepines
Colombian and Peruvian drug trafficking was controlled by:
c. Alcohol
a. The Mafia c. Medellin Cartel d. Tobacco
38. It is also called as ‘uppers’ and to increase
b. La Cosa Nostra d. Chinese Mafia mental and physical function
a. stimulants
30. Principal source of all forms of cocaine b. Depressants
c. Hallucinogens
a. South East Asia c. Middle East
d. Narcotics/ Opiates
b. South America d. South West Asia 39. A drugs that ‘derived from opium’ and
medically potent pain killers/ cough
suppressants

a. stimulants a. Broken families
b. Depressants b. Poverty
c. Hallucinogens c. Anonymity of city life
d. Narcotics/ Opiates d. All of the choices
40. It I also called ‘downers’ drugs reducing 50. Refers to a person having no apparent means of
functional nervous activity. subsistence.
a. stimulants a. Gambler
b. Depressants b. Prostitute
c. Hallucinogens c. Vagrants
d. Narcotics/ Opiates d. None of the foregoing
51. Penalty provided for by law which punishes white
41. It is also called ‘psychedelics’ drugs that slave trade.
causes hallucinations and changes our a. Prision correctional
perception, thought, emotion and consciousness b. Prison mayor
and physical function c. Reclusion temporal
a. stimulants d. Reclusion perpetua
b. Depressants 52. A person who manages or carries a gambling
c. Hallucinogens game.
d. Narcotics/ Opiates a. Maintainer
42. The following countries which considered as b. Conductor
GOLDEN CRESCENT, and also considered as c. Banker
world’s top supplier for opium. Which of the d. Operator
choices does not belong. 53. Refers to the increasing the dosage of drugs to
a. Vietnam maintain the same effect.
b. Iran a. Tolerance
c. Afghanistan b. Physical dependence
d. Pakistan c. Poly drug abuse
43. George, the 20-years old son of a rich politician, d. Drug experimenter
was arrested at the NAIA arrival lounge and 54. A dark brown resin that is collected from the tops
found positive for opium, a dangerous drug. of potent Cannabis Sativa.
When arrested, 15 grams of cocaine were found a. Marijuana
in his bagpack. What offense would you charge b. Hashish
George under R.A No. 9165 (Comprehensive c. Opium
Dangerous Drug Act)? d. Morphine
a. Importation of dangerous drugs. 55. Derived from the Greek word “Narkotikos”,
b. Possession of dangerous drugs. meaning sleep, what is the other term given to
c. Use and possession of dangerous drugs narcotics?
d. Use of dangerous drugs a. Opium
44. Refers to a person who engages in sexual b. Opiates
intercourse with another for hire. c. Morphine
a. Prostitute d. Heroin
b. Whores 56. It is the psychoactive agent of Marijuana.
c. Knockers a. Tetrahydrocannabinol
d. All of the foregoing b. Cannabis sativa
45. The procurement and transportation of women c. Papaver somniferum
from far flung places for immoral purposes. d. Methamphetamine
a. White slavery 57. Codeine which is an alkaloid of opium is primarily
b. Prostitution used as:
c. Organized crimes a. Pain killer
d. All of the foregoing b. Cough reliever
46. This place usually lodges several number of factory c. Stimulant
girls or professional prostitutes under the control of d. Depressant
an organized crime ring. 58. Who among the following acts as the chairman of
a. Disorderly houses the DDB?
b. Furnished room houses a. Secretary of Justice
c. Call houses b. Secretary of National Defense
d. Massage clinics c. Secretary of Education
47. Refers to a person who sets up and furnishes the 59. Originally known as “Kakuseizai” meaning
means with which to carry on the gambling walking drug, it was brought to the Philippines by
game. a Japanese tourist.
a. Maintainer a. Marijuana
b. Conductor b. Cocaine
c. Banker c. Shabu
d. Operator d. Opium
48. Anti gambling law 60. The most potent derivative from opium.
a. PD 1869 a. Codeine
b. PD 1612 b. Cocaine
c. PD 1602 c. Morphine
d. PD 1866 d. Heroin
49. Social causes of prostitution are the following,
except
61. Source of Cocaine which is a hardy plant 72. Chemical substance which effects a person in
cultivated in Bolivia and first used by the Incas of such a way as to bring out physiological,
Peru. behavioral or emotional change.
a. Tetrahydrocannabinol a. Alcohol
b. Papaver somniferum b. Coca leaf
c. Amphetamine c. Drug
d. Erythroxylon coca d. Marijuana
62. The most popular and latest sex drug, whose 73. Drugs that produce perceptual alteration, varying
chemical name is “Methy Dioxy emotions, thought disruption and ego distortion.
Methamphetamine”. a. Depressants
a. Chomper b. Tranquilizers
b. Ecstacy c. Hallucinogens
c. Shabu d. Stimulants
d. Heroin 74. An immoral conduct or habit, the indulgence of
63. Illegal drugs modified molecularly by chemists to which leads to depravity, wickedness and
circumvent legal restrictions. corruption of the mind and body.
a. Designer drugs a. Abuse
b. Hallucinogens b. Vice
c. Amphetamines c. Addiction
d. Methamphetamines d. Gambling
64. A law which prohibits government officials to 75. A person who calls and takes bets from gamecock
enter and gamble in Philippine casinos. owners and other bettors.
a. PD 1602 a. Promoter
b. PD 1869 b. “Cristo”
c. PD 510 c. Banker
d. PD 483 d. Gambler
65. Office that controls and regulates gambling. 76. Most common problem encountered by the police
a. PAGCOR in vice control measures:
b. PCGG a. Unwillingness of government officials to
c. PACC work against vices
d. PNP b. Lack of cooperation from the victims of
66. A scheme or distribution of prizes by chance vices
among persons who have paid or agreed to pay c. Public apathy
a valuable consideration for the chance to obtain d. Clandestine nature of the commission of the
a prize. acts
a. Gambling 77. The process of undergoing or producing gradual
b. Sport chemical change which later becomes sour or
c. Lottery alcoholic.
d. All of the choices a. Distillation
67. A bet or consideration placed on gambling b. Fermentation
games. c. Ionization
a. Wage d. Purification
b. Wager 78. A degree of intoxication wherein the person
c. Prize becomes argumentative and over confident.
d. Banker a. Slight inebration
68. Principal alkaloid of opium which constitute as b. Moderate inebration
much as 25% of the substance: c. Drunk
a. Hashish d. Coma
b. Codeine 79. conversion and fellowship.
c. Morphine a. Aversion treatment
d. Heroin b. Psychotherapy method
69. Amphetamine is a representative of good class of c. Withdrawal method
stimulants known as: d. Program of alcoholic anonymous
a. Crank 80. Oldest profession known to man which involves
b. Pep pills habitual indulgement in sexual intercourse for
c. Knock-out drops money or profit.
d. Stick a. Gambling
70. Agency which supervises the enforcement of law b. Prostitution
on prohibited and regulated drugs. c. Addiction
a. DDB d. All of the foregoing
b. NBI 81. Classy type of prostitute who engages in
c. PACC prostitution to supplement their income.
d. PNP a. Call girls
71. Are drugs which produce insensibility, stupor, b. Factory girls
melancholy or dullness of the mind with c. Hustler
delusions. d. Door knocker
a. Narcotics
b. Stimulants 82. Usually operated by experienced madam, who
c. Depressants rent legitimate roomers to maintain an
d. Hallucinogens appearance of responsibility.
a. Disorderly houses
b. Furnished room houses D. lookout
c. Call houses
d. Massage clinics 93. The illegal cultivation, culture, delivery administration,
83. The Golden triangle where 80% of illicit drugs of dispensation, manufacture, sale, trading, transportation, etc. of
the world originated is located specifically in: any dangerous drug and/or controlled precursor.
a. Thailand-Burma-China border
A. pushing
b. Laos-Thailand-China border
B. illegal trafficking
c. Thailand-Burma-Laos border
C. selling
d. Burma-Vietnam-Thailand border
84. Grass of marijuana, is a crude drug made D. manufacture
from Cannabis Sativa a plant that
contains meal altering ingredient. Which 94. It is any willful act by any person of maliciously and
among the following is not an immediate surreptitiously inserting, placing, adding any dangerous drugs.
effect of weed? A. planting evidence
a. Moderate heart beat and pulse rate B. illegal arrest
b. Impaired reflexes coordination and C. unlawful search
concentration D. none of the above
c. Acute panic, anxiety reaction – external
fear of losing control 95 It is any immoral conduct or habit, the indulgence of
d. Altered sense of time/disorientation
which leads to depravity wickedness and corruption.
85. A drug-obtained from the leaves of coca, a South
A. addiction C. vice
American shrub. It is a central nervous system
stimulant. B. alcoholism D. gambling
a. Marijuana
b. Shabu 96 Are commercially produced drugs that may be
c. Cocaine purchased legally without prescription?
d. Opiates A. over-the-counter drug
86. A game or scheme the result of which depends B. prescription drug
wholly upon chance or hazard. C. unrecognized drug
a. Gambling D. herbal drug
b. Sports
c. Tupada 97. Are drugs which increase alertness, reduce hunger,
d. All of the above and provide a feeling of well-being?
87. Study reveal that the reason why “ Marijuana” is
A. stimulants
difficult to control is that:
B. depressants
a. The big demand
b. The plant can be easily cultivated C. narcotics
c. Can easily be smuggled from outside the D. hallucinogens
country
88. Can be easily smoked surreptitiously Any substance that 98 The drug is taken by the mouth and must pass
directly alters the normal functioning of the central nervous through the stomach before being absorbed into the
system. bloodstream, this is one of the most common ways of taking a
a. Regulated drugs drug.
b. Prohibited drugs A. inhalation
c. Dangerous drugs B. oral ingestion
d. Regulated drugs C. injection
D. snorting
89. It is one of the obvious manifestations of marijuana
use. 99. Morphine addiction from among the veterans of war
A. dropping eyelids came to be known as:
B. cotton mouth A. merchants of death
C. blood shot eye B. soldier’s disease
D. coughing C. casualties of war
D. addiction of veteran
90. It is an exaggerated sense of distress or unhappiness.
A. dysphoria C. euphoria 100 Most abuse drugs in the Philippines?
B. depersonalization D. inhibition a. Marijuana
b. Shabu
91. These are the requirements during the conduct of c. Cocaine
actual buy-bust operations. d. Morphine
A. poseur buyer
B. all of these TECHNICAL ENGLISH 1&2
C. marked money
D. none of these 1. It is the quality of writing pertaining to being explicitly
92. Any person who pays for, raises or supplies money for, or define and specific rather than general. A good writer must be
underwrites any of the illegal activities prescribed by RA 9165. precise and specific in writing his or her report, and should
A. employee avoid ideas that mislead the readers.
B. financier
a. Organization
C. caretaker
b. Specificity d. brevity
c. Perspective
d. Selection 7. It refers to having all the necessary normal part,

components, and style of writing in its entirety. In writing a
2. This refers to the point of view from which the complete report the elements of the crime should established
investigator presents the findings of his report based from and the additional facts should prove those elements.
gathered evidences. For maintaining the objectivity of the
report, the third person point of view should be used; the writer a. completeness
should refer himself or herself as the ‘investigator” or “the
police officer”. b. accuracy
a. Organization c. clarity
b. Specificity d. brevity
c. Perspective
d. Selection
8. This is an objective statement of the findings of the

3. It is the process of how a report is put together after investigator, an official record of the information that is
the specific details of facts have been gathered. The relevant to an investigation.
chronological order of narrating events should be used in
writing the report. a. Record
a. Organization b. Report
b. Specificity c. Memorandum
c. Perspective d. SOP
d. Selection
4. This is the conformity to facts and representation of 9. Having this in writing is having or exhibiting a
truth with precision and exactness. In writing a report, all facts disposition that is free of favoritism, bias, impartiality, self-
and information whether favorable or unfavorable to the interest, or preference in judgment.
concerned subject should be included, and these facts are
a. Exactness
verified by statement of witnesses, and by reference to official
records or reliable sources. b. Subjective
a. completeness c. Elimination
b. accuracy d. Fairness
c. clarity
d. brevity 10. According to the Philippine National Police

investigative manual, these are the types of report writers,
except:
5. This refers to the clearness of thought, style, or
a. The writers who think first and write afterwards
expression of the writer. An effective writer must use correct
English, and must point directly to the written communication b. The writers who don’t write at all
to save readers from reading unnecessary words.
c. The writers who write and think at the same time
a. completeness
d. The writers who write without thinking
b. accuracy
c. clarity
11. These are written reports referring to information on
d. brevity the status of the activity or operation within a unit or
organization.
a. Problem solution reports

6. This has something to do with the quality or state of
being brief and concise, with the quality or terseness, and lack b. Fact-finding reports
or wordiness.
c. Performance reports
a. completeness
d. Problem determining reports
b. accuracy
c. clarity

12. These are written reports identifying the existence miscellaneous reports for routine operations of police
and causes of certain problems. Examples of these are case organization.
reports on Causes of Juvenile Delinquency, Causes of Drug
Addiction, and causes of Human Trafficking. a. Technical reports
a. Problem solution reports b. Summary reports
b. Fact-finding reports c. Internal business reports
c. Performance reports d. Operational reports
d. Problem determining reports

18. These are reports that are furnished for the necessity
of the solution of crime accident, and other police
13. These are written reports on the methods of logical administrative-related problems,
gathering and presentation of data. Examples of these reports
about facts and figures of terrorism, Drug trafficking, Human a. Technical reports
Trafficking, etc. b. Summary reports
a. Problem solution reports c. Internal business reports
b. Fact-finding reports d. Operational reports
d. Problem determining reports 19. These are reports that cover all the exact and
exhaustive narration of facts. These reports are classified as
Initial or Advance, progress or Follow-up, and Final or Closing
14. These are written reports identifying the processes Reports.
and solution of certain problems. Examples of these are case
studies on preventive measures against juvenile Delinquency, a. Spot report
Drug Addiction and Human Trafficking. b. Basic report
a. Problem solution reports c. Special report
b. Fact-finding reports d. Formal report
d. Problem determining reports 20. These are reports that are mostly related with
ordinary, miscellaneous incidents, usually in letter or
memorandum form.
15. These are written reports dealing with technical and
specialized subjects. a. Spot report
a. Technical reports b. Basic report
b. Summary reports c. Special report
c. Internal business reports d. Formal report
d. Operational reports
21. This is written by a police unit or office based from a
directive or instruction from higher police officers. This type of
16. These are written reports on financial, personnel, report follows the memorandum format of correspondence.
purchase, equipment, property maintenance, and general
correspondence which are important in the agency or a. Spot report
organization’s management. b. Basic report
a. Technical reports c. Special report
b. Summary reports d. Formal report
c. Internal business reports
d. Operational reports 22. This is a verbal or written report done within twenty-
four hours after an important incident. This report is written to
inform an immediate chief or those in higher position of
17. These are written reports about police incidents, particular occurrences in his command responsibility
investigations, arrests, identification of persons, and other

a. Spot report a. Progress report
b. Basic report b. Final report
c. Special report c. Traffic accident report
d. Formal report d. Advance report
23. Using the notice on wanted person, this report is 28. This is an advance information on a new or fresh case
about those persons who are by the police. an investigator; the data in this report is not yet complete, but
it is written and immediately submitted after the preliminary
a. Beat Inspection report investigation of the case.
b. Arrest report a. Progress report
c. Wanted person report b. Final report
d. Crime report c. Traffic accident report
d. Advance report
24. This is one of the widely practiced written forms of
communication in a station. This is a routine report because
the duty beat supervisor submits this report daily. 29. This is a written narration of facts developed by the
investigator in the course of the follow-up investigation. This is
a. Beat Inspection report a report on subsequent details which are very vital to the case
b. Arrest report but have not been incorporated in the initial report.
c. Wanted person report a. Progress report
d. Crime report b. Final report
c. Traffic accident report
25. This is a report that documents all the events in d. Advance report
arresting a suspect including personal information, jail
bookings, information about control and release of prisoners,
and court proceedings. This report is based on information 30. A complete written narration of facts based from a
received, ensuring probable cause for warrant/ warrantless thorough investigation of the case. This is a result of
arrest. evaluation, summation, and analysis of all facts and
circumstances of the case, and the complete accumulate and
a. Beat Inspection report collection of data.
b. Arrest report a. Progress report
c. Wanted person report b. Final report
d. Crime report c. Traffic accident report
d. Advance report
26. These are reports written after the conclusion from
preliminary investigation that a crime truly happened. This
report also includes important factors like corpus delicti 31. This is the part indicating the summary of the result
(elements of the crime), suspect descriptions, properties taken, of the whole investigation process. The summary should be
evidences collected, property damages, victims’ injuries, and supported by facts basing from the order of statement of
suspects’ modus operandi. allegations.
a. Beat Inspection report a. Matters investigated
b. Arrest report b. Facts of the case
c. Wanted person report c. Discussion
d. Crime report d. Conclusion
27. This report is written by the officer who investigates 32. This part is the coherent presentation of all the
the accident. This type of report documents all the facts and important facts supported by evidences involving the whole
information about any vehicular accident whether it is fatal or investigation.
non-fatal.
a. Matters investigated a. NARRATIVES AND REPORTS
b. Facts of the case b. LEGAL PLEADINGS AND CITATIONS
c. Discussion c. JUDICIAL ORDERS
d. Conclusion d. STUDIES AND RESEACH
33. This part is where the investigator writes the purpose 39. are formal pieces of writing submitted to the court,
of his report by generally stating what the investigation is all such as motions for summary judgement and complaints for
about. Included in this part are the complaints, and the damages.
allegations of committed crimes.
a. NARRATIVES AND REPORTS
a. Matters investigated
b. LEGAL PLEADINGS AND CITATIONS
b. Facts of the case
c. JUDICIAL ORDERS
c. Discussion
d. STUDIES AND RESEACH
d. Conclusion
40. Is a meeting of minds between two persons whereby
one binds himself, with respect to the other, to give something
or to render some service
34. This is the part indicating all the factual information
related to the investigation. The investigator discusses all the a. Agreement
circumstances to give the reader a clear picture of the whole
investigation in order to establish the conclusion and b. Resolution
recommendation of the report. c. Contract
a. Matters investigated d. Award
b. Facts of the case 41. Is a public official whose duty is to attest the
c. Discussion genuineness of any deed or writing in order to render them
available as evidence of the facts that contains.
d. Conclusion
a. Notarization
35. Is a type of writing where the author is writing about
a particular subject that requires direction, instruction or b. Notarial acts
explanation. c. Notary
a. Technical Writing d. Nota
b. Writing 42. These are written forms used in conveyancing or of
c. Legal Writing the forms of deeds, instruments or documents creating,
transferring, modifying or limiting rights to real as well as
d. Legal Form personal properties, and other forms related to business
contracts or transactions.
36. A document written for experts will be very different
from one written for the general public. a. Commercial forms
a. SIMPLICITY AND CONCISENESS b. Trade forms
b. ACCURACY c. Business forms
c. AUDIENCE FOCUSED d. Nota
d. Nota 43. Refers to a contract, meaning that the buyer, as well

as the seller is legally bound to fulfill their obligations.
37. There is no room for ambiguity or errors in a technical
document. a. CONTRACT
a. SIMPLICITY AND CONCISENESS b. CONVEYANCE
b. ACCURACY c. DEED
c. AUDIENCE FOCUSED D. Nota
d. Nota 44. It is a legal document that grants its holder ownership

of a piece of real estate or other assets, such as an automobile.
38. It tells the story if the crime; what happened and why
it happened. a. CONTRACT

b. CONVEYANCE 51. Is detailed account of an event, situation, etc., usually
based on observation or inquiry.
c. DEED
a. Story
d. Nota
b. Narrative
45. “Verbosity should be avoided” meaning____
c. Report
a. Must be precise
d. Report writing
b. Must be accurate
52. Is a communication that lends itself to a useful tool
c. Direct to the point for people in a free society to express their thoughts and ideas
d. Be courteous and to obtain what they need or want
46. It is a legal document which is prepared with certain a. Story

formalities, and under which a person directs what will happen b. Narrative
to his/her property after his/her death.
c. Report
a. CONTRACT
d. Report writing
b. CONVEYANCE
53. Reports that Are usually short messages with natural
c. DEED casual use of language.
d. Nota a. Formal
47. Is that part of an affidavit in which the officer certifies b. Informal reports
that the instrument was sworn to before him.
c. Short or long reports.
a. Will
D. Nota
b. Deed
54. Reports that provide facts, data, feedback, and other
c. Contract types of information, but they also provide analysis,
d. Jurat interpretation, and recommendations.
48. This one is to authenticate an agreement between two a. Informational

or more persons, or where the document contains a disposition b. Proposal report.
of property.
c. Analytical report
a. Will
d. Nota
b. Acknowledgement
55. A report that assists in the coordination in the
c. Affidavit organization.
d. Sworn statements a. Vertical report
49. Is a sworn statement prepared by someone who b. Lateral report
wishes to file a legal complaint. It becomes the basis for the
case, providing basic information about the facts of the matter c. Informational
and outlining the nature of the case.
d. Analytical report
a. AFFIDAVIT OF UNDERTAKING
56. Also known as status reports Are similar to progress
b. AFFIDAVIT OF DISINTERESTED PERSONS reports. They are generally upward directed and serve
management control and issued on regularly scheduled dates.
c. COMPLAINT AFFIDAVIT
a. Vertical report
d. Nota
b. Periodic reports
50. An order in the court that requires someone to testify
as a witness. c. Annual report
a. SUBPOENA d. Functional reports
b. SUMMON 57. This classification includes accounting reports,

marketing reports, financial reports, and a variety of other
c. Subpoena ad testificandum reports that take their designation from the ultimate use of the
d. Subpoena ducestecum report.
a. Vertical report

b. Periodic reports d. PERFORMANCE REPORT
c. Annual report 63. A police report which represents data on a specialized

subject
d. Functional reports
a. PROBLEM SOLUTION REPORT
58. Here elements (components) such as location,
geography, division, product or parts are used to present the b. TECHNICAL REPORT
data
c. FACT-FINDING REPORT
a. TIME
d. PERFORMANCE REPORT
b. COMPONENT
64. These are reports that cover all the exact and
c. IMPORTANCE exhaustive narration of facts. These reports are classified as
Initial or Advance, progress or Follow-up, and Final or Closing
d. CRITERIA Reports.
59. These are reports created using a prescribed e. Spot report
template. Many short information reports use convention as
their organizing principle. f. Basic report
a. CONVENTION g. Special report
b. CRITERIA h. Formal report
c. IMPORTANCE
d. COMPONENT 65. These are reports that are mostly related with
ordinary, miscellaneous incidents, usually in letter or
60. It is an official record of information relevant to the memorandum form.
investigation which the investigator submits to his or her
superior. it is a document that details the findings or evidence e. Spot report
related to the formal complaint or allegation.
f. Basic report
a. Investigative reporting
g. Special report
b. Investigative report
h. Formal report
c. Investigative report writing
d. Investigative writing
66. This is written by a police unit or office based from a
61. After the reader has absorbed all of the information, directive or instruction from higher police officers. This type of
the memo needs to close with a courteous ending that states report follows the memorandum format of correspondence.
what action the writer wants his/her reader to take
e. Spot report
a. OPENING SEGMENT
f. Basic report
b. TASK SEGMENT
g. Special report
c. SUMMARY SEGMENT
h. Formal report
d. CLOSING SEGMENT
62. Are building block of all documents. It is a series of

sentences that are organized and coherent, and are related to 67. This is a verbal or written report done within twenty-
a single topic. four hours after an important incident. This report is written to
inform an immediate chief or those in higher position of
a. Sentence particular occurrences in his command responsibility
b. Paragraph e. Spot report
c. Verb f. Basic report
D. Noun g. Special report
63. A police report which contains information as to the status h. Formal report
of an activity/ies or operation.
68. Using the notice on wanted person, this report is
a. PROBLEM SOLUTION REPORT about those persons who are by the police.
b. TECHNICAL REPORT e. Beat Inspection report
c. FACT-FINDING REPORT f. Arrest report

g. Wanted person report f. Final report
h. Crime report g. Traffic accident report
h. Advance report
69. This is one of the widely practiced written forms of

communication in a station. This is a routine report because
the duty beat supervisor submits this report daily. 74. This is a written narration of facts developed by the
investigator in the course of the follow-up investigation. This is
e. Beat Inspection report a report on subsequent details which are very vital to the case
but have not been incorporated in the initial report.
f. Arrest report
e. Progress report
g. Wanted person report
f. Final report
h. Crime report
g. Traffic accident report
h. Advance report
70. This is a report that documents all the events in
arresting a suspect including personal information, jail
bookings, information about control and release of prisoners,
and court proceedings. This report is based on information 75. A complete written narration of facts based from a
received, ensuring probable cause for warrant/ warrantless thorough investigation of the case. This is a result of
arrest. evaluation, summation, and analysis of all facts and
circumstances of the case, and the complete accumulate and
e. Beat Inspection report collection of data.
f. Arrest report e. Progress report
g. Wanted person report f. Final report
h. Crime report g. Traffic accident report
h. Advance report
71. These are reports written after the conclusion from

preliminary investigation that a crime truly happened. This
report also includes important factors like corpus delicti 76. This is the part indicating the summary of the result
(elements of the crime), suspect descriptions, properties taken, of the whole investigation process. The summary should be
evidences collected, property damages, victims’ injuries, and supported by facts basing from the order of statement of
suspects’ modus operandi. allegations.
a. Beat Inspection report e. Matters investigated
e. Arrest report f. Facts of the case
f. Wanted person report g. Discussion
g. Crime report h. Conclusion
72. This report is written by the officer who investigates 77. This part is the coherent presentation of all the
the accident. This type of report documents all the facts and important facts supported by evidences involving the whole
information about any vehicular accident whether it is fatal or investigation.
non-fatal. e. Matters investigated
e. Progress report f. Facts of the case
f. Final report g. Discussion
g. Traffic accident report h. Conclusion
h. Advance report
78. When an incident happens, this report must be made

73. This is an advance information on a new or fresh case within twenty-four hours.
an investigator; the data in this report is not yet complete, but a. Crime report
it is written and immediately submitted after the preliminary
investigation of the case. b. Situation report
e. Progress report
c. Spot report 84. The report rendered by an interrogator/ investigator
which contains the following information of subjects: a)
d. Wanted Person report Personal and family background; b) Educational background;
c) Professional background; d) Criminal activities/ associates,
armaments; e) Plans.
79. Police officer Juan arrested a suspect. What should he
make to document all the events in arresting a suspect? a. investigation report
a. Situation report b. tactical interrogation report
b. Wanted person report c. background investigation report
c. Spot report d. nonoe of these
d. Arrest report 85. It is an 18” x 12” logbook with hard-bound cover that
contains the daily register of all crime incident reports, official
summary of arrests, and other significant events reported in a
police station.
80. Traffic Officer Gerry responded to a non-fatal
vehicular accident. What report shall be made? a. Journal Log
a. Arrest report b. Police Log
b. Traffic Accident report c. Police Blotter
c. Situation report d. Log of event
d. Accident report
a. Affidavit of Arrest of arresting officers must be taken

immediately not later than
81. PCPL Dela Fuente is an investigator who is
investigating a particular case. He shall write an a. 12 hours
_________________ that will provide permanent official
record of the pertinent information procured during the course b. 36 hours
of investigation. c. 18 hours
a. Investigation report d. 24 hours
b. Arrest report 86. The spot report shall be submitted to the HHQ within
c. Wanted person report ____ hours
d. Crime report a. 12 hours
b. 36 hours
82. Ricky is a wanted person. In order for the public to c. 18 hours

know that he is wanted, what report shall be made by the d. 24 hours
police?
87. This is the first step of writing the investigation report
a. Beat inspection report where the investigator determines his purposes and objectives
b. Situation report in writing the report. He the gathers the facts and
circumstances related to the case.
c. Special Report
a. Initial preparation
d. Wanted Person report
b. Final organization of the collected data
c. Preparation of the first draft

83. A logbook that contains the daily registry of all crime
incident reports, official summaries of arrests, and other d. Rewriting and polishing the report
significant events reported in a police station. (PNP Manual
revised 2010)
88. Just like the second step, the first draft should also
a. Manual follow the chronological order or presentation. The draft should
b. Police Blotter be based from the outline and should be presented in a clear
manner with the use of appropriate transitions to maintain the
c. Record coherent flow of ideas.
d. Reports a. Initial preparation
b. Final organization of the collected data

c. Preparation of the first draft e. Investigation report
d. Rewriting and polishing the report f. Arrest report
89. This is the step where the investigator will recheck, g. Wanted person report
edit, and review the rough draft to check the errors, and goes
on rewriting to improve the whole report. h. Crime report
a. Initial preparation
b. Final organization of the collected data 95. Ricky is a wanted person. In order for the public to
know that he is wanted, what report shall be made by the
c. Preparation of the first draft police?
d. Rewriting and polishing the report a. Beat inspection report
b. Situation report
90. Using chronological order, all the gathered facts, and c. Special Report
evidences, related to the case should be sequentially
presented. d. Wanted Person report
a. Initial preparation 96. It is a document containing facts related to a legal

proceeding. The person who makes the declaration affixes his
b. Final organization of the collected data or her signature in a separate endorsement paragraph at the
end of the document with a statement that the declaration is
c. Preparation of the first draft made under oath.
d. Rewriting and polishing the report a. Oath
b. Affidavit
91. When an incident happens, this report must be made c. Sworn statement
within twenty-four hours.
d. Complaint
e. Crime report
f. Situation report
97. These are types of verified, formal sworn statement
g. Spot report of fact signed by an affiant or author, and witnessed by a
h. Wanted Person report notary public. This can be used as evidence in court
proceedings.
a. Oath
92. Police officer Juan arrested a suspect. What should he
make to document all the events in arresting a suspect? b. Affidavit
e. Situation report c. Sworn statement
f. Wanted person report d. Complaint
g. Spot report
h. Arrest report 98. A clause in an affidavit certifying the oath and the date
made by the affiant.
a. Commencement
93. Traffic Officer Gerry responded to a non-fatal
vehicular accident. What report shall be made? b. Individual averments
e. Arrest report c. Attestation
f. Traffic Accident report d. Statement of truth
g. Situation report
h. Accident report 99. This is a statement verifying that what is stated is true
under oath.
a. Commencement
94. PCPL Dela Fuente is an investigator who is
investigating a particular case. He shall write an b. Individual averments
_________________ that will provide permanent official c. Attestation
record of the pertinent information procured during the course
of investigation. d. Statement of truth
d. cyber crime
100. These are separate claims that are numbered as 5. refers to a computer or a computer network the electronic
mandated by law; medium in which online communication takes place.
a. Commencement a. alteration
b. Individual averments b. communication
c. Attestation c. computer
d. Statement of truth d. cyber
INTRODUCTION TO CYBERCRIME AND 6. refers to the transmission of information through ICT

ENVIRONMENTAL LAWS media, including voice, video and other forms of data
1. It refers to any representation of facts, information or a. alteration

concept in a form suitable for processing in a computer
system including a program suitable to cause a computer b. communication
system to perform a function and includes electronic c. computer
documents and or electronic data messages whether stored in
local computer system and or electronic data messages d. cyber
whether stored in local computer system or online
7.refers to the computer systems, and/or networks, whether
a. Interception physical or virtual, and/or the computer programs, computer
b. Data base data and/or traffic data so vital to this country that the
c. Cyber security incapacity or destruction of or interference with such system
d. Computer data and assets would have a debilitating impact on security,
national or economic security, national public health and
2. refers to listening to, recording, monitoring or surveillance safety, or any combination of those matters.
of the content of communications, including procuring of the
content of data, either directly, through access and use of a a. computer program
computer system or indirectly, through the use of electronic
eavesdropping or tapping devices, at the same time that the b. critical infrastructure
communication is occurring.
c. service provider
a. interception
d. information
b. data base
8, in determining whether the act is punishable under cyber
c. cyber security crime prevention act, you know as criminologist that such act
should be under any of the three major categories of
d. computer data cybercrime offense. Which of the following is not included in
the said major categories?
3. it refers to any device or group of interconnected or
related devices, one or more of which, pursuant to a a. computer related offense
program, performs automated processing of data. It covers b. Offenses against confidentiality, integrity Availability
any type of device with data processing capabilities including, of computer
but not limited to, computers and mobile phones. The device c. Content related offense
consisting of hardware and software may include input, d. Illegal interception
output and storage components which may stand alone or be
connected in a network or other similar devices. It also 9. it is known as the “Cybercrime Prevention Act of 2012”.
includes computer data storage devices or media.
a. RA 10575
a. computer data
b. RA 10175
b. computer system
c. RA 11175
c. cyber
d. RA 10757
d. computer
10. it refers to any information contained in the form of
4. refers to the collection of tools, policies, risk management computer data or any other form that is held by a service
approaches, actions, training, best practices, assurance and provider, relating to subscribers of its services other than traffic
technologies that can be used to protect the cyber or content data and by which identity can be established.
environment and organization and user’s assets.
a. subscriber information
a. cyber
b. traffic
b. cyber space
c. traffic data
c. cyber security
d. cyber crime

11. Types of hacker which strive to operate in the public’s best 17. it is premeditated use of disruptive activities or threat
interest, rather than to create turmoil. Many white hat hackers thereof, in cyber space with the intention to further social
work doing penetration, hired to attempt to break into the ideological religious political or similar objectives or to
company’s networks to find and report on security intimidate any person in furtherance of such objectives.
vulnerabilities. The security firms then help their customers
mitigate security issues before criminal hackers can exploit a. cyber crime
them. b. cyber space
a. white hacker c. cyber terrorism
b. blue hacker d. cyber sex
c. black hacker 18. according to CIDG this is the hot spot of cyber sex in the
d. gray hacker Philippines(2014) except
12. JOJO is hired by spa col . corporation as one of their IT a. Angeles Pampanga
expert. JOJO is tasked to fix the system of the corporation for b. san Fernando Pampanga
better security .
c. las pinas
a. black hacker
d. davao
b. white hacker
e. cavite
c. gray hacker
19. a portpolio of a person organization, entity, company which
d. blue hacker is posted on the internet for accessibility worldwide
13. a crime in which an imposter obtains key pieces of a. ICT
personally identifiable information, such as Social Security or
driver’s license numbers, in order to impersonate someone b. website
else.
c. address
a. extortion
d. ISP
b. identity theft
20. Anti camcording act of 2010
c. bank fraud
a. RA 8293
d. carding
b. RA 10088
14. it Involves gaining access illegally to a computer system or
network and in some cases making unauthorized use of this c. RA 10175
access. Hacking is also the act by which other forms of cyber-
d. RA 8484
crime (e.g.,fraud, terrorism) are committed.
21. The criminal follows the victim by sending emails, and
a. cyber stalking
frequently entering the chat rooms that causes an intentional,
b. phishing substantial and unreasonable intrusion into the private life of
the person.
c. email bombing
a. cracking
d. unauthorized access
b. hacking
15. series of numbers assigned by an internet service provider
to an internet user when it connects to the internet. c. cyber stalking
a. ISP d. worm
b. IP address 22. a type of viruses that spread itself to other computers

without needing to be transferred as part of a host
c. website
a. computer virus
d. ICT
b. cyrus
16. a type of IP address that is constant regardless of the time
or number of attempts the internet user accesses the internet. c. worm
a. website d. logic bomb
b. static IP 23. any physical harm done to the computer set
c. dynamic IP a. battery
d. IPman b. computer vandalism

c. economic crime b. spam
d. criminal c. ligo
24. what is the result of cyber stalking d. cyber scam
a. mental deficiency 31. JOWEL posted a libelous message against PUROY mayor of
ISLA puting bato may be hel liable for cyber crime . however,
b. mental capacity a netizen name MOSANG reacted to the libelous post on
c. metal distress facebook by clicking heart reaction may be held liable for the
said act?
d. mental mistress
a. yes, because RA 10175 punishing or abetting cybercrime
25 . a set of instruction secretly inserted into a program that is
designed to execute if a particular program is satisfied b.yes. because his reaction is part of the original post
a.logic c. no, because RA 10175 does not punishing aiding or

abetting
b. logic bomb
d. no because there is another law punishing the said act
c. bomb
32. if the commission of the cyber sex involves lascivious
d. DDS exhibition of sexual organs or sexual activity of a child , the
offender may be prosecuted for child pornography. How should
26. it is a computer program that can copy itself and infect a the court appreciate the use of the computer system in the said
computer without permission or knowledge of the user cyber-sex involving a child.
a. computer virus a. it shall be mitigate
b. malware b. it shall be used as qualifying circumstance in the
offense
c. ramsomware
c. it shall be used as a justifying circumstance
d. hardware
d. it shall exempt the accused from the civil liability
27. this the reason of the vulnerability of computers except
33. Karlo and karla were long time chat mate. One night , they
a. capacity to store data in a relatively small space
agree to video-call each other using ligo-live . while their
b. easy to access conversation progress karlo mentioned his past sexual
experiences which made karla aroused. Karla ask Karlo if they
c. easy to gain could do some act like showing their private parts to each
other. While showing his private parts to Karlo he caught by his
d. loss of evidence
father while doing lascivious acts. Is there a crime of cyber sex?
28. all but one are not part of content related offense under RA
A. no, RPC only punishes prostitution committed by a woman
10175
b. no, RA 10175 does not include private obscene
a. computer related forgery
shows between two private person
b.computer related fraud
c. yes, RA 10175 expressly punishes those acts
c. cyber child pornography
d. yes, because it is immoral or wrong by nature
d.computer related identity theft
34. all but one are powers and duties of law enforcement
29. the unlawful or prohibited acts of libel as defined in article authorities where a search and seizure warrant is properly
355 of the revised penal code, as amended, committed issued
through a computer system or any other similar means which
a. to secure a computer system or a computer data storage
may be devised in the future. The statement is not false
medium
a. correct
b. to make and retain a copy of those computer data secured
b. incorrect
c. to procure all other kinds of evidence against the
c. partially correct offender even beyond the authority of the warrant
d. partially incorrect d. to render inaccessible or remove those computer data in the

access of computer
30. it is most commonly known as the transmission of
unsolicited commercial communication which seeks to 35.May evidence procured without a valid warrant be
advertise, sell, or other for sale some products or services. admissible in evidence for any proceeding before any court
tribunal ?
a. scam
a. yes, because the Philippines follow the silver platter doctrine

b. yes, because the law said so c. Green hat hacker
c. no, the 1987 constitution disallows the admissibility d. Amateur hacker

of such evidence by virtue of the exclusionary principle
are incorporated by RA 10175 42. Typically, they engage in hacking activities for the pure
enjoyment of finding gaps in computer systems, and they
d. no, the provision of RA 10175 do not expressly indicate the might even let the owner know if any weak points are found.
exclusionary rule However, they don’t always take the most ethical route when
employing their hacking activities—they may penetrate
36. The acquisition of a domain name over the internet in bad systems or networks without the owner’s permission (even
faith to profit, mislead, destroy reputation, and deprive others though they aren’t trying to cause any harm)
from registering the same
a. White hat hacker
a. cyber squatting
b. Black hat hacker
b. computer related fraud
c. Gray hat hacker
c. cybersex
d. Green hat hacker
d. data interference
43. They are also called as script kiddies. They don’t possess
37. prohibited transmission of commercial electronic the same level of skill or experience as more advanced hackers
communication with the use of computer system which seek to in the field. To make up for this, they turn to existing malware
advertise, sell, or offer for sale products and services created by other hackers to carry out their attacks.
a. aiding or abetting in the commission of cybercrime a. White hat hacker
b. unsolicited commercial communications b. Gray hat hacker
c. section 4a in critical infrastructure c. Green hat hacker
d. Misuse of Devices d. Amateur hacker
38.It is a computer with a high level of performance compared 44. URL stands for
to a general purpose computer
a. Uniform reasources locating
a. Computer
b. Uniform resource location
b. Supercomputer
c. Uniform reasource locator
c. Mainframe computer
d. Uniform reasources locator
d. Microcompute
45. Designed as special-purpose computers (or software
39. He was the sole creator of the Melissa Virus packages) that handle the connection between two or more
a. Onel De Guzman networks
b. David Smith a. Internet
c. Jeremy Bentham b. Routers
d. Robert Morris c. Server
40. Type of cyber hacker who breaks into computer systems d. Byte
with malicious or criminal intent. These 46. Hackers are hired by government agencies to spot
individuals can do serious harm to individuals and organizations vulnerabilities in security systems, with a specific focus on
alike by stealing sensitive or personal finding and disarming black hat hackers. They’re known to be
particularly ruthless in their hunt for black hat criminals, and
data, compromising entiere computer systems, or altering typically use any means possible to take them down.
critical networks.
a. White hat hacker
a. White hat hacker
b. Blue hat hacker
b. Black hat hacker
c. Red hat hacker
c. Gray hat hacker
d. Malicious Insider
d. Green hat hacke
47. Malware coders who create bots to perform high-volume
41. They are otherwise called as “just for fun” hackers attacks across as many devices as possible, typically targetting
routers, cameras and other Internet of Things (IoT) devices.
a. White hat hacker
a. Elite hacker
b. Gray hat hacker
b. Cryptojacker a. Cybercrime
c. Hacktivists b. Cyber war
d. Botnets c. Cybercontrabands
48. De昀椀ned as the inde昀椀nite place where individuals d. Cyber fraud

transact and communicate. It is the
54. Are those groups comprised of criminally minded
place between places individuals who have used the Internet to communicate,
collaborate, and facilitate cybercrime
a. Internet
a. Organized criminals
b. Computer
b. Cyber organized criminals
c. Cyberspace
c. Cyber-criminal organizations
d. Cyber
d. Computer criminals
49. Are small pieces of information that an HTTP server sends
to the individual browser upon the initial connection. 55. It is the use or the implicit threat of use of technological m
e a n s t o c a u s e h a r m to t h e physical being, reputation,
a. Counterfeiting or property of an individual, organization, or company as a me
an to obtain the consensual exchange of property from that
b. Cracker
individual, organization,
c. Carpooling
or company
d. Cookies
a. Cybersecurity
50. A term originally coined by hackers which usually refers to
b. Cybersex
those individuals violating secure systems for illicit purposes
rather than fun. c. Cybercriminals
a. Counterfeiting d. Cyberextortion
b. Cracker 56. The internet is simply known as ----
c. Carpooling a. NAT
d. Cookies b. NET
51. Are those who target data that is valuable on its face (e.g., c. NOT
trade secrets and proprietary data) or directed at data (e.g.,
credit card data) which may be used to further other criminal d. NFT
activity.
57.authentication is ---
a. Criminal hacker
a. Modification
b. Cyber criminal
b. Insertion
c. Cyber fraud
c. Hard to assure identity of user on a remote system
d. Cyber squatting
d. None of the above
52. What is short for malicious software (is software designed
58.it is a software are programs that are installed onto your
to disrupt computer operation, gather sensitive informatioon,
computer and can scan and remove known
or gain unauthorized access to computer systems)?
viruses which you may have contracted.
a. Malware
a. Firmware
b. Moleculeware
c. Maliso昀琀 b. Advair
c. Keylogger
d. Malairsoftware
d. Anti-virus
53. Re f e r s t o c o n d u c 琀椀 n g m i l i t a r y o p e r a t i
o n s a c c o r d i n g t o information-related principles. It means 59. To protect yourself from computer hacker, you should turn
disrupting or destroying information and communications on a
systems. It means trying to know everything about an
adversary while keeping the adversary from knowing much a. Script
about oneself. It means turning the “balance of information and
b. Firewall
knowledge "in one’s favor, especially if the balance of forces is
not.
c. VLC c. 100 days
d. Anti-virus d. 120 days
60. Firewalls are used to protect against ----- 66.Who is the chairman of inter-agency technical advisory
council
a. Data driven attacks
a. SILG
b. Fire attacks
b. SENR
c. Virus attacks
c. SND
d. Unauthorized access
d. STI
61. Which of the following is not an Anti-virus software
67.IT means any combination of two or more chemical
a. AVG substances if the combination does not occur in nature and is
b. Avast not, in whole or in part, the result of a chemical reaction, if
none of the chemical substances comprising the combination is
c. Code red a new chemical substance and if the combination could have
been manufactured for commercial purposes without a
d. McAfree chemical reaction at the time the chemical substances
comprising the combination were combined. This shall include
62.what are the 3 R’s to conserve natural resources?
nonbiodegradable mixtures
a. Reuse, Reduce, Recycle
a. chemical compound
b. Reduce, Recycle, Reuse
b. chemical mixture
c. Reuse, Recycle, Reduce
c. mixture
d. Reduce, Reuse, Recycle
d. chemical substance
63. Mr pugi purchased a secondhand motor vehicle, after the
68. means the mechanical or chemical transformation of
purchase he decided to go on a Baguio road trip with his
substances into new products whether work is performed by
girlfriend Mocha Chino. While in the road of delikado his vehicle
power-driven machines or by hand, whether it is done in a
starts producing black smoke without his knowledge. Is MR.
factory or in the worker’s home, and whether the products are
PUGI liable of any environmental crime?
sold at wholesale or retail.
a. Yes
a. manufacture
b. No
b. chemical diversion
c. Maybe
c. importation
d. Partially No
d. structured
64. Angel throws her unsegregated garbage on a damsite
69 . The representative from the non-governmental
because her house is near on a damsite. Basedon the Philippine
organization shall be appointed by the President for a term of
Environmental Laws, what law did she violate?
?
a. Philippine Clean Air Act of 1999
a.2 years
b. Philippine Clean Water Act of 2004
b. 3 years
c. Ecological Solid Waste Managemnt Act of 2000
c. 4 years
d. Toxic Substance, Hazardous and Nuclear Waste Control Act
d. 5 years
of 1990
70. this Act shall be known as the “Toxic Substances and
65. Action by the Secretary of Environment and Natural
Hazardous and Nuclear Wastes Control Act of 1990.”
Resources of his Duly Authorized Representative. — The
Secretary of Environment and Natural Resources or his duly a. ra 6969
authorized representative shall, within _______ from the date
of filing of the notice of manufacture, processing or importation b.RA 9696
of a chemical substance or mixture, decide whether or not to
regulate or prohibit its importation, manufacture, processing, c.RA 6996
sale, distribution, use or disposal. The Secretary may, for d. RA 6869
justifiable reasons, extend the ninety-day pre-manufacture
period within a reasonable time. 71. means any matter found in the atmosphere other than
oxygen, nitrogen, water vapor, carbon dioxide, and the inert
a. 80 days gases in their natural or normal concentrations, that is
b. 90 days detrimental to health or the environment, which includes but

not limited to smoke, dust, soot, cinders, fly ash, solid particles b. Recovered material
of any kind, gases, fumes, chemical mists, steam and radio-
active substances; c. Recyclable material
a. air pollutant d. None of these
b. air pollution 78. This are articles which are products of human skills or
workmanship, especially in the simple product of primitive arts
c. pollution or industry representing past eras or periods.a
d. polluted a. Artificial Reefs
72. means any air contaminant, pollutant, gas stream or b. Artifacts

unwanted sound from a known source which is passed into the
atmosphere; c. Antiques
a. green house gases d. Aquatic Resources
b. emission 79. Which of the following is not a immediate concern that

should be addressed for the protection of the environment
c. eco profile ,cultural properties and natural resources
d. eco gas a. protection of forest
73. mean any emissions and fumes which are beyond b. protection of interest
internationally-accepted standards, including but not limited to
World Health Organization (WHO) guideline values; c. protection of cultural properties
a. "Poisonous and toxic fumes d. protection of endangered species and other wild life
b. Pollution control device" 80. Considered as the father of environmental law
c. "Pollution control technology" a. dave sive
d. Standard of performance b. dave bint
74. The word economy came from greek word ? c. dave port
a. oikos d. dave hill
b.eikos 81. Refers to the totality of the electronic means employed to

systematically collect, process, store, present and share
c. pcos information to end-users in support of their activities.
d. ikos a. Directorate for Information and Communication

Technology Management (DICTM)
75. is the study of the interactions between organisms and their b. Information and Communication Technology
environment. (ICT)
c. Information and Communication System
a. environment
d. Nota
b. ecology
82. This refers to the kind of emotional violence that can be
c. forestry enacted online such as bullying or harassment.
d. demography a. Cyber-Violence
b. Cyber-Deception and Theft
76. It shall refer to waste generated from planting or harvesting c. Cyber-Porn and Obscenity
of crops, trimming or pruning of plants and wastes or run-off d. Cyber-Trespass
materials from farms or fields;
83. Crimes that involve crossing or violating boundaries of
a. bulky waste other people digitally. For example, hacking, accessing data
without consent.
b. agricultural waste
a. Cyber-Violence
c. composting
d. collection c. Cyber-Porn and Obscenity
d. Cyber-Trespass
77. shall refer to material and by-products that have been
recovered or diverted from solid waste for the purpose of being 84. this involves offenses such as online fraud and IP theft.
collected, processed and used as a raw material in the
a. Cyber-Violence
manufacture of a recycled product;
a. Receptacles c. Cyber-Porn and Obscenity
d. Cyber-Trespass
85. This involves the exploitation of children and distribution of c. Kaigin
pron materials through the internet. d. Deforestation
a. Cyber-Violence 93. Those gases that can potentially or can reasonably be

b. Cyber-Deception and Theft expected to induce global warming, which includes carbon
c. Cyber-Porn and Obscenity dioxide, methane, oxides of nitrogen, chorofluorocarbons, and
d. Cyber-Trespass the like.
86. Refers to the instruction, communication with, storing data a. Green Gases
in, retrieving data from, or otherwise making use of any b. Greenhouse Gases
resources of a computer system or communication network c. House gases
d. House green gases
a. Access
b. Alteration 94. Means the ecological community considered together with
c. Data Interference non-living factors and its environment as a unit.
d. System Interference
a. Ecology
87. refers to any device or group of interconnected or related b. Solar system
devices, one or more of which, pursuant to a program, c. Ecosystem
performs automated processing of data. d. Environment
a. Computer system 95. The part of the World Wide Web, which is known for its
b. Computer data obscure and hidden websites that host illicit activities, goods,
c. Data Interference and services, and can only be accessed using specialized
d. System Interference software.
88. refer to forest reservations essentially of natural wilderness a. Deep web

character which have been withdrawn from settlement, b. Illicit web
occupancy or any form of exploitation except in conformity with c. Underground web
approved management plan and set aside as such exclusively d. Dark web
to conserve the area or preserve the scenery, the natural and
historic objects, wild animals and plants therein and to provide 96. The part of the World Wide Web that is not indexed by
enjoyment of these features in such areas. search engines and is not easily accessible and/or available to
the public.
a. Natural Parks
b. National Parks a. Deep web
c. People’s park b. Illicit web
d. Park c. Underground web
d. Dark web
89. Manila’s most air polluted district due to open dump sites
and industrial waste. 97. The use of information and communication technology by
children to annoy, humiliate, insult, offend, harass, alarm,
a. Paco stalk, abuse or otherwise attack another child or children.
b. Binondo
c. Tondo a. Cyberbullying.
d. Ermita b. Cyberharassment.
c. Cyberstalking.
90. generally refers to the variety and variability of Life on d. Cyberterrorism.
Earth, and is represented by the number of different species e. nota
there are on the planet.
98. The cyber-dependent crimes perpetrated against critical
a. Biodiversity infrastructure to cause some form of harm and to provoke fear
b. Biodiversification in the target population.
c. Bioeconomy
d. Nota a. Cyberbullying.
b. Cyberharassment.
91. Tools and techniques used to obfuscate cybercrime c. Cyberstalking.
investigation and digital forensics efforts. d. Cyberterrorism.
e. nota
a. Anti- forensics
b. Anti-digital forensics 99. The use of information and communication technology to
c. Antimalware or Antivirus commit a series of acts over a period of time designed to
d. Both a and b harass, annoy, attack, threaten, frighten, and/or verbally abuse
e. Nota an individual
92. refers to the shifting and/or permanent slash-and-burn a. Cyberbullying.

cultivation of forest land having little or no provision to prevent b. Cyberharassment.
soil erosion. c. Cyberstalking.
d. Cyberterrorism.
a. Kaingin
e. nota
b. Kainin
100. Phishing via text messaging. Also known as SMS phishing.
a. Sextortion.
b. Smishing.
c. Sexting.
d. Spam.

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CRIME DETECTION AND INVESTIGATION

BOARD EXAM TRIAL

FUNDAMENTALS OF CRIMINAL INVESTIGATION AND

1|P age AMICI REVIEW CENTER

2|P age AMICI REVIEW CENTER

35 .IRONIC stands for: 43.Crime scene photographs are admissible as evidence in

3|P age AMICI REVIEW CENTER

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93. Primary requisite for conducting raids.

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56.Most common reason of arson cases. A. Gas

26 | P a g e AMICI REVIEW CENTER

27 | P a g e AMICI REVIEW CENTER

94. The fire extinguisher contains of _______. a. Methamphetamine Hydrochloride

97. A burned body found was subjected to autopsy; however

28 | P a g e AMICI REVIEW CENTER

16. Cocaine is from South America; ivory white heroin is from;

B. Rehabilitation of a minimum period of 6 months a. Japan c. Mexico

C. Rehabilitation for 6 months to 18 months b. China d. India

29 | P a g e AMICI REVIEW CENTER

c. The DDB promulgates rules and regulations related a. Portugal c. Germany

a. Public Attorney’s Office a. Flunitrazepam

a. 15 days c. 10 days a. Drug addiction

a. Japan c. Philippines 36. A type of alcoholic beverage with an alcohol content

30 | P a g e AMICI REVIEW CENTER

d. Selection 7. It refers to having all the necessary normal part,

8. This is an objective statement of the findings of the

d. brevity 10. According to the Philippine National Police

a. Problem solution reports

34 | P a g e AMICI REVIEW CENTER

a. Problem solution reports b. Summary reports

b. Fact-finding reports c. Internal business reports

c. Performance reports d. Operational reports

d. Problem determining reports

a. Technical reports b. Basic report

b. Summary reports c. Special report

c. Internal business reports d. Formal report

35 | P a g e AMICI REVIEW CENTER

b. Basic report b. Final report

c. Special report c. Traffic accident report

d. Formal report d. Advance report

c. Wanted person report a. Progress report

d. Crime report b. Final report